Quiz 1 — Aeronautical Decision Making
Reference: PHAK Chapter 2; FAA-H-8083-2A Risk Management Handbook
Risk Management
1) Define Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
ADM is a systematic, continuous approach to risk assessment and stress management used by a pilot to accurately identify hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action throughout every phase of flight. It replaces the old "gut-feeling" approach with a structured decision process.
2) What is SRM (and CRM)? Give examples of how to use them at the private pilot/PIC level
Single-pilot Resource Management (SRM) is the art and science of managing all resources (internal and external) available to a single pilot before and during flight to ensure a safe outcome — e.g., using ATC, weather briefings, checklists, passengers, and automation effectively. Crew Resource Management (CRM) is the same concept applied to a multi-person crew, emphasizing communication and workload sharing. Example: a private pilot delegates chart handling to a passenger, uses ATC flight following, and briefs passengers on sterile-cockpit rules during departure/arrival.
3) Describe the risk management process, specifically stratifying risk
The process is: (1) identify hazards, (2) assess the risk (likelihood/probability × severity of consequence), (3) analyze controls/mitigations, (4) make a control decision, (5) use the controls, (6) monitor the outcome. Risk is stratified using a risk matrix that plots Probability (frequent, occasional, remote, improbable) against Severity (catastrophic, critical, marginal, negligible) to produce an overall risk level (e.g., high/serious/medium/low) guiding go/no-go decisions.
4) Identify risks using IMSAFE and PAVE, then stratify by Probability/Severity for the given scenarios
IMSAFE (Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion) evaluates pilot fitness; PAVE (Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures) evaluates the whole flight. Apply both to each scenario, then rate probability and severity:
a. 25-kt gusty winds at destination — Environment risk (crosswind/gust handling exceeding proficiency); moderate probability, marginal-to-critical severity depending on pilot currency; mitigate by checking crosswind component vs. personal minimums, having an alternate.
b. Flying over Lake Michigan in summer — Environment risk (single-engine over open water, no immediate forced-landing site, cold water even in summer); mitigate with life vests/raft, filing a flight plan, flying the shortest crossing point or routing around, wearing flotation.
c. Ferrying an aircraft with an inoperative airspeed indicator — Aircraft risk; higher workload/higher risk of stall or overspeed; mitigate by reviewing pitch/power settings that approximate airspeeds, VFR/day/good weather only, per the ferry permit's limitations.
d. Tired PIC, low nose strut delay pushes departure to sunset, taking a first-time passenger — Pilot (fatigue) + External pressure (get-there-itis to not disappoint the friend) + Environment (approaching night); high combined risk; mitigate by recognizing the "IMSAFE" fatigue flag and the "PAVE" external pressure, and be willing to scrub or delay to the next day.
1) Recall the elements of the "DECIDE" model and how to use it
Detect a change needing attention, Estimate the need to counter the change, Choose a desirable outcome, Identify actions to control the change, Do the necessary action, Evaluate the effect. It is a continuous, cyclical decision-making loop used throughout flight, especially when conditions change unexpectedly.
2) Recall the elements of the "IMSAFE" model and how to use it
Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion. Used as a personal self-assessment checklist before every flight to determine fitness to fly; if any item raises concern, the pilot should consider delaying or canceling the flight.
3) Recall the elements of the "PAVE" model and how to use it
Pilot (qualifications/currency/health), Aircraft (airworthiness/performance/equipment), enVironment (weather, terrain, airport, airspace), External pressures (schedules, passengers, get-there-itis). Used as a preflight checklist to identify and mitigate risk in each of the four categories before committing to the flight.
4) What are the 5 hazardous attitudes and their antidotes?
Anti-authority ("Don't tell me" → antidote: "Follow the rules"); Impulsivity ("Do it quickly" → "Not so fast, think first"); Invulnerability ("It won't happen to me" → "It could happen to me"); Macho ("I can do it" → "Taking chances is foolish"); Resignation ("What's the use?" → "I'm not helpless, I can make a difference").
5) What are the 7 common operational pitfalls?
Peer pressure, mind set (get-there-itis), get-home-itis, scud running, continuing VFR into IMC, getting behind the aircraft, loss of positional/situational awareness, operating without adequate fuel reserves, descent below the minimum en route altitude, flying outside the envelope, and neglecting flight planning/preflight/checklists. (PHAK lists these as the common "operating pitfalls" that trap pilots through self-imposed pressure.)
Quiz 2 — Aeromedical Factors
Reference: PHAK Chapter 17
Medical Exams
How do you obtain a 3rd class medical and how long is it valid (under 40 / 40+)?
It is obtained from an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) after completing MedXPress online and a physical exam. For a 3rd class medical used for private pilot privileges: valid 60 calendar months (5 years) if the pilot is under age 40 on the exam date; 24 calendar months (2 years) if age 40 or older.
1) What are 1st and 2nd class physicals and how long do they last?
1st class is required for ATP privileges (airline captains); duration is 12 months if under 40, 6 months if 40+ (for ATP privileges), reverting to 2nd/3rd class duration rules for lesser privileges. 2nd class is required for commercial pilot privileges; valid 12 months regardless of age for commercial privileges, then reverts to 3rd class duration for private privileges.
2) What is Basic Med? Minimum requirements to qualify?
BasicMed is an alternative to holding a 3rd class medical for certain private-privilege flights. Requirements: held a valid FAA medical certificate at some point after July 14, 2006; answer health questionnaire and get a physical exam by any state-licensed physician using the Comprehensive Medical Exam Checklist; complete a free online BasicMed medical education course; have not had the most recent FAA medical application denied, revoked, or suspended (or if so, subsequently obtained a new medical or special issuance).
3) How often must you see a physician for BasicMed?
Every 48 months (4 years).
4) How often must you take the online BasicMed course?
Every 24 months (2 years).
5) What must you carry in the aircraft under BasicMed?
A valid U.S. driver's license, the completed physician's Comprehensive Medical Exam Checklist (or equivalent proof), and proof of completion of the online medical education course.
6) Flying restrictions for BasicMed
Aircraft authorized for up to 6 occupants and 6,000 lbs MGTOW; no more than 5 passengers; not for compensation/hire (with limited exceptions); flight below 18,000 ft MSL; no faster than 250 KIAS; within the U.S. (or as authorized); single-engine or multi-engine piston is common but not exclusively limited to those.
7) Disqualifying conditions that end BasicMed eligibility
A new mental health, neurological, or cardiovascular condition (e.g., a heart attack, stroke, seizure, or certain psychiatric diagnoses) requires the pilot to stop flying under BasicMed and obtain a one-time special issuance from the FAA for that condition before resuming BasicMed.
Hypoxia
8) What is Hypoxia and how does it most commonly occur in aviation?
Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair brain and body functions. In aviation it most commonly occurs as hypoxic hypoxia from reduced partial pressure of oxygen at altitude.
9) FAA supplemental oxygen altitude requirements for crew >30 min, crew anytime, and passengers
14 CFR 91.211: required crew use above 12,500 ft up to 14,000 MSL for that portion of flight time exceeding 30 minutes; required crew use above 14,000 ft MSL for the entire time; required to be provided to occupants above 15,000 ft MSL (crew must use it).
10) Symptoms and effects of hypoxia
Headache, drowsiness, euphoria, poor judgment, tunnel vision, cyanosis (bluish skin/lips), tingling, impaired coordination, and eventually unconsciousness — often with a false sense of well-being that masks the impairment.
11) Where to obtain aviation oxygen
Aviation-grade oxygen (not medical or welding oxygen, which may contain moisture) from an FBO, aviation supply shop, or oxygen equipment provider such as Mountain High or Aerox.
12) What is a pulse oximeter?
A small clip-on device (usually on a fingertip) that measures blood oxygen saturation (SpO2) and pulse rate, allowing a pilot to monitor for early hypoxia at altitude.
13) If you suspect hypoxia with no oxygen available, what should you do?
Immediately descend to a lower altitude (below 10,000-12,000 ft) and, if available, increase ventilation/fresh air; notify ATC if needed.
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
14) How does CO cause hypoxia?
CO binds to hemoglobin roughly 200x more readily than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin and displacing oxygen so the blood cannot carry adequate oxygen to tissues — a form of hypemic hypoxia.
15) How does CO get into the cabin?
Most commonly through a cracked or leaking exhaust manifold/muffler that contaminates the cabin heater air (heat exchanger shroud draws cabin heat from around the exhaust).
16) Symptoms and effects of CO poisoning
Headache, dizziness, drowsiness, poor judgment, and loss of muscle power — very similar to hypoxia symptoms, and dangerous because it can go unnoticed.
17) What to do if you suspect CO threat/poisoning?
Immediately shut off the cabin heater, open fresh-air vents/windows, and if symptoms are severe, land as soon as practical and seek medical attention; use supplemental oxygen if available.
18) How do you detect CO? Can you smell it?
CO is colorless and odorless, so it cannot be smelled. Detection requires a CO detector (chemical spot detector or an electronic CO alarm/monitor installed in the cockpit).
Hyperventilation
19) Why do people hyperventilate?
Typically from emotional stress, anxiety, fright, or excessive rate/depth of breathing, which excessively expels carbon dioxide from the blood.
20) What happens to anxiety/panic once hyperventilation begins, and how do you interrupt it?
The lightheadedness and tingling caused by the drop in CO2 typically increase anxiety and panic, which drives further hyperventilation — a worsening cycle. It's interrupted by consciously slowing the breathing rate, talking out loud, or breathing into a paper bag if available.
21) Immediate safety action if a passenger starts hyperventilating
Calmly talk them through slowing their breathing while you maintain aircraft control; if the pilot is affected, transfer control if possible and focus on flying the aircraft first.
Motion Sickness
22) How does motion sickness occur; can it be treated without pharmaceuticals; what should you do for a sick passenger?
It results from a conflict between visual, vestibular (inner ear), and proprioceptive sensory inputs regarding motion. It can often be reduced without drugs by having the person focus on the horizon, get fresh air, avoid reading/looking down, and keep the ride smooth. If a passenger becomes sick, open air vents, keep them looking outside at the horizon, and give them a bag; land as soon as practical if it worsens.
Vestibular System and Spatial Disorientation
23) Describe the vestibular system/semicircular canals
The inner ear vestibular apparatus includes three fluid-filled semicircular canals oriented in different planes that sense angular (rotational) acceleration, plus the otolith organs that sense linear acceleration and gravity, together giving the brain a sense of motion and balance — which can be fooled without visual reference.
24) Describe "the leans"
A sudden or gradual roll input too slow to stimulate the semicircular canals can go undetected; when the pilot then abruptly levels the wings, the canals sense a roll that didn't register before, causing the pilot to feel banked when actually level — the most common illusion in IMC.
25) Describe the "Coriolis Illusion"
Occurs when a pilot moves their head out of the plane of rotation during a prolonged turn (e.g., looking down at a chart), stimulating multiple semicircular canals simultaneously and creating an overwhelming, disorienting sensation of rotation or tumbling.
26) What is a "Graveyard Spiral"?
After an extended, gradual turn goes unnoticed (canals stop signaling turn after ~20 sec), the pilot perceives level flight, and as altitude is lost the pilot pulls back on the yoke, tightening the spiral and increasing bank/descent rate — the most common cause of loss of control following continued VFR flight into IMC.
27) What is the "Somatogravic Illusion"?
A rapid acceleration (e.g., on takeoff) can be perceived by the otolith organs as a pitch-up, causing the pilot to push the nose down inappropriately; common when climbing into low overcast right after takeoff while looking at the clouds instead of the instruments.
28) Describe a "false horizon"
A pilot may mistake a sloping cloud deck, a line of lights, or a dark shoreline for the true horizon and align the aircraft incorrectly with it.
29) What is Autokinesis and how do you avoid it?
A stationary light stared at in the dark against a featureless background appears to move on its own due to small eye movements. Avoid it by not fixating on a single light — keep scanning and reference flight instruments.
30) Strategies to avoid/mitigate spatial disorientation
Trust and rely on the flight instruments rather than bodily sensations, avoid VFR flight into IMC, get proper instrument training, keep the head still during maneuvers, maintain a good visual scan, and avoid sudden head movements especially during turns.
Optical Illusions
31) Runway width illusions
A narrower-than-normal runway creates an illusion of being higher than actual, prompting a lower-than-normal approach that can lead to landing short or hitting obstacles. A wider-than-normal runway creates an illusion of being lower than actual, prompting a higher, flatter approach and possible flare too high/hard landing or overshoot.
32) Upsloping/downsloping runway illusion
An upsloping runway creates an illusion the aircraft is higher than it actually is, leading to a lower approach; a downsloping runway creates an illusion of being lower than actual, leading to a higher approach.
33) Conditions conducive to "featureless terrain" illusion
Night flight over water, remote unlit areas, farmland, or snow-covered ground with no lights or horizon reference makes the ground appear farther away, causing pilots to fly a dangerously low approach; look for a VASI/PAPI glide path system as a visual reference aid in these conditions.
34) How rain, haze, and fog interfere with approach
Rain on the windscreen refracts light and can make objects appear farther away/lower; haze creates an illusion of being farther from the runway than actual, causing pilots to fly too low and slow; fog scatters light and reduces contrast/visual cues, causing similar low, unstable approaches.
35) Strategies to mitigate low approaches in these conditions
Use the VASI/PAPI when available, cross-check the altimeter and airspeed rather than relying solely on visual approach angle, fly a stabilized approach with defined altitude checkpoints, and be prepared to go around.
Stress, Fatigue, Dehydration, Alcohol and Drugs
36) How stress, fatigue, dehydration affect ADM/mental processes
They degrade attention, memory, judgment, reaction time, hand-eye coordination, and the ability to multitask or handle emergencies — increasing the likelihood of errors and reducing situational awareness.
37) Minimum "bottle to throttle" time
14 CFR 91.17: at least 8 hours from the consumption of any alcoholic beverage to acting as a crewmember (often called "8 hours, bottle to throttle," though good judgment often dictates longer).
38) How much does a hangover affect ADM/performance?
Significantly — residual alcohol effects, dehydration, and fatigue from a hangover can impair judgment, memory, coordination, and reaction time even after the legal waiting period and below the legal BAC limit.
39) Where to find prohibited OTC/prescription medications list
The FAA's "Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners" and resources at faa.gov (Do Not Issue/Do Not Fly lists), as well as AOPA's medication database; when in doubt, consult an AME.
40) Common OTC medications pilots should avoid
Sedating antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine/Benadryl), many cold/allergy/sleep aids, motion sickness medication (e.g., Dramamine), and anything causing drowsiness or that carries a "may cause drowsiness" warning.
Decompression Sickness and the "Bends"
41) What is decompression sickness and how does it occur?
Nitrogen dissolved in body tissue under pressure (e.g., from scuba diving) comes out of solution as bubbles when ambient pressure drops (e.g., climbing to altitude), causing joint pain, neurological symptoms, and other injury.
42) Why are scuba divers particularly prone to this?
Diving exposes them to increased ambient pressure that dissolves excess nitrogen into their tissues; flying too soon afterward drops the pressure further/faster than the body can safely off-gas the nitrogen.
43) How long to wait after diving before flying?
AIM 8-1-2 recommends at least 12 hours after a dive not requiring decompression stops, at least 24 hours after a dive requiring decompression stops, and longer/24 hours minimum for flights above 8,000 ft even for no-decompression dives.
44) What to do if a passenger has joint pain/headache/disorientation after diving?
Suspect decompression sickness; descend and land as soon as possible, administer 100% oxygen if available, and seek immediate medical attention/hyperbaric treatment.
Night Vision
45) Rods vs. cones for night vision and location
Rods are used for night/peripheral vision (sensitive to low light, no color detail) and are concentrated in the periphery of the retina; cones provide color and sharp central vision but need more light and are concentrated in the fovea (center).
46) Time to adapt to night vision; how fast is it lost?
Full dark adaptation takes about 30 minutes; it can be lost almost instantly (seconds) with exposure to bright light.
47) Recommended altitude to use oxygen at night and why
Consider supplemental oxygen above 5,000 ft MSL at night, because night vision is more susceptible to the effects of even mild hypoxia than day vision.
48) Night blind spot and compensation
A small central blind area exists at night because the fovea (cone-only) has too few rods to function well in dim light; compensate by using off-center viewing — looking 5-10° to the side of an object rather than directly at it.
49) What is off-center viewing at night?
A scanning technique of looking slightly to the side of an object at night rather than straight at it, so the light falls on the more light-sensitive peripheral rods instead of the central blind spot.
Middle Ear and Sinus Problems
50) Symptoms with a stuffy nose/cold and altitude changes
Blocked eustachian tubes/sinus passages can trap pressure, causing ear pain/blockage or severe sinus pain during climbs and especially descents; can be severe enough to cause temporary hearing loss or even eardrum rupture.
51) Technique to "clear" your ears
The Valsalva maneuver (gently pinching the nose and blowing while keeping the mouth closed), swallowing, yawning, or chewing gum to open the eustachian tubes.
52) What is a sinus block, pain reduction, and go/no-go implications?
A sinus block occurs when a blocked sinus opening traps pressure differential, causing significant pain, most often during descent. Reduce pain by using a decongestant (if permitted and not impairing) or slowing/leveling the descent to equalize gradually. Given the severity, the go/no-go decision to fly with a cold or congestion should often have been "no-go."
Currency Requirements
53) Night landing currency (full stop?) vs. day currency
14 CFR 61.57(b): to carry passengers at night, 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in the same category/class (and type if required), each landing to a full stop, done during the period from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. Daytime currency (61.57(a)) requires 3 takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days but does NOT need to be full stop (touch-and-go is acceptable).
54) Difference between currency and proficiency
Currency is the minimum legal recency of experience required by regulation (e.g., 90-day landing currency, flight review). Proficiency is the pilot's actual skill level and comfort performing maneuvers safely — a pilot can be legally current but not truly proficient.
55) Flight review frequency; substitutes
14 CFR 61.56: a flight review (1 hour ground + 1 hour flight with a CFI) is required every 24 calendar months. It can be substituted by completing a pilot proficiency check/practical test for a new certificate/rating, or by satisfactorily completing a phase of the FAA WINGS Pilot Proficiency Program within the preceding 24 months.
56) How soon must you notify the FAA of a new address?
Within 30 days of moving (14 CFR 61.60).
57) What time is required to log, and every flight?
Pilots must log the date, total flight time, and (per 61.51) enough detail to show currency requirements; it is not legally required to log every flight — only that flight time necessary to show currency, recency, and required aeronautical experience.
Quiz 3 — Aerodynamics
Reference: PHAK Chapters 3, 4, 5; AIM 7-3-1
Aircraft Categories and Certification
1) Differences between Normal, Utility, Aerobatic, Commuter, Air Transport categories
Normal: everyday non-aerobatic flying, limited to certain maneuvers/load factors (~+3.8/-1.52 G typical). Utility: allows more aggressive maneuvers (e.g., spins, steeper turns) at somewhat higher load factors (~+4.4/-1.76 G). Aerobatic: allows unrestricted maneuvers with the highest load factor limits (~+6/-3 G) and no maneuver restrictions. Commuter category: small multi-engine airplanes (up to 19 passengers, 19,000 lbs) meeting a higher safety standard than normal category. Air Transport: large aircraft used in scheduled/commercial airline service, meeting the highest certification standard (14 CFR Part 25).
2) When is a Type Certificate issued; what's on a TCDS; where to find it?
A Type Certificate (TC) is issued by the FAA when a new aircraft design is shown to meet applicable airworthiness standards. The Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) lists the approved design specifics — engine(s), propeller, weight limits, CG range, control surface travel, required equipment, and other limitations. TCDSs are published and searchable on the FAA's website (Dynamic Regulatory System / DRS).
3) When/how is an Airworthiness Certificate issued; how long is it good for?
Issued by the FAA (or a designated representative) after inspection shows the aircraft conforms to its type design and is in condition for safe operation. A Standard Airworthiness Certificate has no expiration date — it remains valid as long as the aircraft is maintained per its type certificate, airworthiness directives, and required inspections.
Pressure and Temperature (CFI-level items in red)
a) What is temperature a measure of?
The average kinetic energy (molecular motion) of a substance — how hot or cold it is.
b) How are pressure, temperature, and volume related? Example of gas expansion/contraction and density change
Described by the ideal gas law: pressure, volume, and temperature are interdependent (PV = nRT). If a gas volume expands at constant pressure, its temperature drops and its density decreases; if it's compressed, temperature rises and density increases. Example: air rising and expanding as pressure drops cools and becomes less dense.
c) Difference between "weight" and "mass"
Mass is the amount of matter in an object (constant everywhere); weight is the force of gravity acting on that mass (varies with gravitational field, e.g., less on the Moon).
d) How is density defined? Units?
Density = mass per unit volume. Units: slugs/ft³ or kg/m³.
e) Define velocity, acceleration
Velocity is the rate of change of position (speed with direction), e.g., ft/sec or knots. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity over time, e.g., ft/sec².
f) Definition and units of Force
Force is a push or pull that can cause a mass to accelerate (F = m × a); units are pounds (lbf) or newtons.
g) Definition and units of Pressure
Pressure is force per unit area; units are pounds per square inch (psi) or inches of mercury (inHg) in aviation barometric use.
1) Standard atmosphere concept and parameters
A theoretical reference atmosphere with a defined sea-level pressure (29.92 inHg), sea-level temperature (15°C/59°F), and standard lapse rates, used as a baseline for performance charts and instrument calibration.
2) Standard temperature lapse rate; non-standard conditions
Approximately 2°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 ft up to 36,000 ft. Non-standard conditions include temperature inversions, frontal boundaries, and surface heating/cooling effects that alter the actual lapse rate.
3) Standard pressure lapse rate; constant to what altitude?
Approximately 1 inHg per 1,000 ft near sea level; this rate is roughly constant/linear up to about 18,000 ft (used for pressure-altitude approximation) though the true rate decreases slightly with altitude.
4) Two ways to determine pressure altitude at an airport
(1) Set the altimeter to 29.92 and read the indicated altitude; (2) apply the correction: for every 0.1 inHg the current altimeter setting is below 29.92, add 100 ft to field elevation (and subtract if above 29.92).
5) How barometric pressure is determined/reported at an airport; why similar despite altitude differences
Station pressure (actual measured pressure) is corrected/adjusted to sea-level equivalent pressure (altimeter setting) using the field elevation, so that altimeter settings are comparable between airports regardless of elevation — that's why Telluride, Denver, and Key West altimeter settings read within about an inch of each other despite huge elevation differences: the reported value is adjusted to represent sea-level pressure, not raw station pressure.
6) Pressure altitude at KRFD with altimeter 30.12" and 28.92"
KRFD field elevation ≈ 741 ft. With 30.12: (29.92-30.12)= -0.20 → -200 ft correction → pressure altitude ≈ 541 ft. With 28.92: (29.92-28.92)=1.00 → +1,000 ft correction → pressure altitude ≈ 1,741 ft.
7) Barometric pressure at 10,000 ft on a standard day; manifold pressure at WOT in a 182 there
At standard lapse rate (~1"/1,000ft near the surface, tapering with altitude), pressure at 10,000 ft is approximately 20.6 inHg. In a normally-aspirated 182 at wide-open throttle at that altitude, manifold pressure will read approximately that ambient pressure, roughly 20-21 inHg (full throttle can't exceed ambient in a non-turbo engine).
8) Standard lapse rate: altitude where temp reaches freezing if C77 reports 45°F
45°F ≈ 7°C. Freezing (0°C) is 7°C lower. At ~2°C/1,000 ft, that's about 3,500 ft above field elevation.
9) What is density altitude, how calculated, do GA performance charts need it directly?
Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature — the altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the air density would be equal to the actual air density. It's calculated from pressure altitude and outside air temperature (via chart, E6B, or formula). Most GA POH performance charts use pressure altitude and temperature directly as chart inputs (rather than requiring the pilot to separately compute density altitude), though density altitude conceptually explains the performance loss.
10) How temperature, pressure, humidity affect air density
Higher temperature decreases air density (molecules spread out); lower pressure decreases density; higher humidity decreases density (water vapor molecules are lighter than the nitrogen/oxygen they displace). All three combine into "high density altitude" conditions that hurt performance.
Forces of Flight and Airfoil Design
1) Four forces of flight; when equally opposed
Lift, weight, thrust, and drag. They are equal and opposite (lift=weight, thrust=drag) during steady, unaccelerated straight-and-level flight.
2) Define each of the 4 forces
Lift: the upward aerodynamic force generated mainly by the wings opposing weight. Weight: the force of gravity pulling the aircraft down. Thrust: the forward force produced by the powerplant/propeller. Drag: the rearward-acting aerodynamic resistance force opposing thrust.
3) Are forces equal during climb or descent?
No — in a climb, thrust exceeds drag and the vertical component of lift is less than weight (some "lift" comes from the thrust vector); in a descent, weight component along the flight path exceeds thrust and drag.
4) Bernoulli's principle; does it fully explain lift?
Bernoulli's principle states that as fluid velocity increases, its pressure decreases. Faster airflow over the curved upper wing surface creates lower pressure there than the lower surface, contributing to lift. It's one contributing explanation, but modern understanding recognizes lift is also explained by Newton's third law (downward deflection of airflow, "turning" the air) — the full picture combines pressure differential and airflow turning/momentum change.
5) Define/draw: Camber, Chord, Angle of Attack
Camber: the curvature of an airfoil comparing the upper and lower surfaces (usually more curved on top). Chord: an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the airfoil. Angle of Attack (AOA): the acute angle between the chord line and the relative wind (oncoming airflow direction).
6) Relative wind and its relation to lift direction / AOA
Relative wind is the airflow relative to the aircraft, parallel to and opposite the flight path. Lift acts perpendicular to the relative wind. AOA is measured between the chord line and the relative wind, and increasing AOA (up to the critical angle) increases lift.
7) What is wing "washout" and how does it help stall recovery?
Washout is a design twist that gives the wingtip a lower angle of incidence than the wing root, so the root reaches its critical AOA and stalls first while the tips (and ailerons) keep flying, preserving roll control and giving a more gentle, controllable stall.
8) How do flaps change chord/AOA? Ailerons?
Flaps increase the effective camber and chord line curvature (and often chord length), increasing lift and drag at a given AOA/airspeed without changing the wing's fixed incidence. Ailerons deflect asymmetrically to change the effective camber/AOA of each wing to produce differential lift and roll.
9) How is drag related to lift; direction relative to lift and thrust?
Induced drag is a byproduct of lift production (increases as lift/AOA increases); drag acts along and opposite the relative wind/flight path, while lift acts perpendicular to it; thrust typically acts roughly opposite to (along) the drag vector, forward along the flight path.
10) Where is center of lift/pressure generally located?
Roughly in the forward-to-middle third of the wing chord (location shifts forward as AOA increases, aft as AOA decreases, for typical airfoils).
11) Does wind only flow front-to-back over a wing?
No — there is also spanwise airflow: air flows outward/spanwise along the wing (especially near the tip, from higher pressure below to lower pressure above near the tip), contributing to wingtip vortices; this is the "third dimension" of flow beyond simple chordwise flow.
Drag and Wingtip Vortices
1) Two categories of drag; where/when greatest
Parasite drag (form, skin friction, interference drag) increases with speed and is greatest at high airspeed; induced drag (byproduct of lift) increases as speed decreases/AOA increases and is greatest at low airspeed.
2) How rapidly does parasite drag increase with speed?
Parasite drag increases with the square of airspeed (doubling speed roughly quadruples parasite drag).
3) Doubling horsepower — does cruise speed double? Why not?
No. Because drag (and required power) rises steeply (power required rises roughly with the cube of speed for the parasite-drag-dominated regime), doubling horsepower yields only a modest speed increase, not a doubling.
4) How is induced drag created; when most pronounced?
Created as a byproduct of generating lift — high-pressure air below the wing spills around the tip to the low-pressure area above, creating wingtip vortices and a rearward-tilted lift vector component. It is most pronounced at low airspeeds/high AOA (e.g., slow flight, climb, landing approach).
5) How does a pilot "induce" drag before landing? (compare to birds)
By raising the nose to increase AOA during flare/round out (and by extending flaps), increasing induced drag to help decelerate — similar to a bird cupping its wings and raising its angle of attack just before touchdown.
6) What is L/Dmax; relation to power/fuel burn?
L/Dmax is the airspeed/AOA at which the lift-to-drag ratio is greatest — the point of minimum total drag, requiring the least thrust/power and giving best glide and best range performance (lowest fuel burn per distance).
7) What/where is the region of reverse command relative to L/Dmax?
It's the speed range below L/Dmax (on the "backside of the power curve") where flying slower requires more power, not less, because rapidly rising induced drag outweighs the reduction in parasite drag.
8) What phases of flight are in the region of reverse command?
Slow flight, final approach at slow speeds, and short-field/soft-field takeoffs/landings — yes, it makes sense that more power is needed to fly slower there, since drag increases as speed drops below L/Dmax.
9) Ground effect distance and benefit; high vs low wing
Ground effect becomes significant roughly within one wingspan of the surface, reducing induced drag and downwash, improving lift efficiency (floating tendency near touchdown, easier to become airborne on takeoff before reaching normal climb speed). Low-wing aircraft generally receive a greater benefit from ground effect than high-wing aircraft because the wing is closer to the ground.
10) Danger of an overloaded aircraft that breaks ground in ground effect
The aircraft may become airborne within ground effect's reduced-drag cushion but be unable to climb out of ground effect (settling back down or failing to accelerate/climb) once it leaves that cushion, risking a stall or collision with obstacles.
11) What are wingtip vortices, how do they occur, and dangers?
Circular airflow patterns trailing from the wingtips caused by high-pressure air below the wing spilling around the tip to the low-pressure area above. They present a wake-turbulence hazard — a following aircraft encountering strong vortices can experience a violent, potentially unrecoverable roll upset.
12) Wind conditions favoring lingering wake turbulence over the runway
Light, quartering tailwind (roughly 1-5 kts) can blow vortices from the upwind side of the runway across/onto the runway and keep them there; calm wind lets vortices sink and stay near the runway/flight path as well.
13) Aircraft/configuration/regime producing greatest wake turbulence
Heavy, clean (no flaps), slow aircraft produce the strongest wake turbulence (high AOA needed at slow, heavy, clean configuration maximizes vortex strength).
14) Departing after a large jet lands ("caution wake turbulence")
Note the jet's touchdown point; plan to land/rotate beyond that point, and if departing, try to lift off prior to the jet's touchdown point and climb above/stay upwind of its flight path, or request additional spacing/delay.
15) Cleared for takeoff immediately after a departing large jet
Note the jet's rotation point; plan to rotate prior to that point and climb to remain above the jet's flight path, and consider requesting additional time/holding to let vortices dissipate or drift away.
16) Cleared to land #2 behind a large jet
Stay at or above the jet's approach path and land beyond its touchdown point.
17) Jet cleared for takeoff ahead of you on 2-mile final
Note the jet's rotation/liftoff point and plan to land beyond it, staying above the jet's climb path; consider a go-around or delay if spacing/vortex risk seems too great.
Axes of Rotation and Stability
1) Which axis for pitch, roll, yaw?
Pitch is about the lateral axis; roll is about the longitudinal axis; yaw is about the vertical (normal) axis.
2) Static vs dynamic stability; 3 types of each
Static stability is the initial tendency of a displaced aircraft to return toward equilibrium (positive, neutral, or negative static stability). Dynamic stability describes the resulting motion over time (positive dynamic — oscillations dampen out; neutral — oscillations continue at constant amplitude; negative dynamic — oscillations increase in amplitude/diverge).
Longitudinal Stability (Pitch, about lateral axis)
3) Does the horizontal stabilizer produce lift? Direction and why?
Yes — on most conventional designs it produces a small download (negative lift, tail-down force) to balance the nose-down pitching moment created by the wing's lift acting aft of the CG, keeping the aircraft in pitch equilibrium.
4) Where is CG relative to Center of Lift?
CG is normally located forward of the center of lift/pressure for a conventional design, which is what necessitates the tail's download for balance.
5) As CG moves forward, what must the tail produce, and effect on wing lift needed?
The tail must produce a greater downward force to keep the nose up, and the wing must produce more total lift to support both the aircraft weight and the added tail-down load — increasing induced drag/stall speed and reducing performance/efficiency.
6) As CG moves aft toward center of lift, effect on tail lift and wing lift needed
Less tail-down force is required, so the wing needs to produce less total lift, improving efficiency (lower stall speed, less drag) — but at the cost of reduced longitudinal stability.
7) Two ways a wing generates more lift; negative result; effect on thrust/fuel burn/max airspeed
Increase angle of attack or increase airspeed (or wing area/flap deployment). The negative result is increased induced/parasite drag, requiring more thrust and fuel burn and typically reducing maximum attainable airspeed.
8) Aft CG effect on required lift, thrust, fuel burn, max airspeed
Aft CG reduces the tail-down load needed, so less total wing lift (and thus less drag/thrust/fuel) is required for a given weight, which can slightly increase efficiency and max airspeed — but reduces stability and stall/spin recovery margin.
9) Concerns with extreme forward or aft CG as airspeed decreases near landing
Forward CG: reduced elevator effectiveness at low speed may leave insufficient up-elevator authority to flare/round out properly, risking a nose-gear-first or hard landing. Aft CG: reduces the margin of longitudinal stability and increases stall/spin risk, with reduced elevator authority also complicating stall recovery.
10) Effect of extreme forward/aft CG on stall recovery
Extreme forward CG can make it difficult to generate enough nose-down elevator authority to reduce AOA and recover from a stall (especially at low airspeed); extreme aft CG reduces stability, can result in a more abrupt/unpredictable stall and greater difficulty recovering, and increases spin susceptibility/severity.
Lateral and Vertical (Yaw) Stability
11) Design features that improve roll stability
Wing dihedral, sweepback, high wing placement (pendulum effect), and keel effect (large vertical fuselage/fin area above the CG).
12) Why does a high wing have better roll stability than a low wing?
The high wing's weight (fuselage) hangs below the wing's lift, creating a pendulum-like restoring effect when the aircraft is displaced in roll, similar to added dihedral effect.
13) Design features improving yaw stability; tricycle vs. tailwheel on the ground
A large vertical stabilizer/rudder area aft of the CG improves yaw (weathervaning) stability. On the ground, a tricycle-gear aircraft's CG is ahead of the main gear, giving it inherent directional stability (tends to track straight); a tailwheel aircraft's CG is behind the main gear, making it directionally unstable on the ground and prone to ground-looping if not corrected promptly.
Controllability vs. Maneuverability
1) Key difference between controllability and maneuverability
Controllability is the aircraft's response to control input to maintain equilibrium/attitude; maneuverability is the aircraft's ability to withstand the stresses of a maneuver and change its flight path/attitude — maneuverability specifically involves the aircraft's ability to tolerate higher load factors (G forces), which controllability alone doesn't require.
Forces in Climbs, Descents, and Stalls
2) Why does pitching up for a climb slow the aircraft (and pitching down accelerate it)?
Pitching up increases AOA and drag while a component of weight now acts rearward along the flight path (opposing thrust), decelerating the aircraft unless power is added; pitching down does the opposite — gravity's component now aids thrust along the flight path, accelerating the aircraft.
3) What is the critical angle of attack?
The AOA at which airflow separates from the upper wing surface and lift decreases rapidly — the AOA at which a stall occurs, regardless of airspeed or attitude.
4) How does a stall occur? Does the wing totally stop producing lift?
A stall occurs when the wing exceeds its critical AOA, causing airflow separation and a sharp loss of lift. The wing does not produce zero lift — it still produces some lift, just significantly less than needed to sustain level flight, and drag increases sharply.
5) At what pitch/attitude/airspeed is a stall not possible?
A stall is a function of angle of attack, not airspeed or pitch attitude alone — an aircraft can stall at any airspeed or any attitude (nose high, level, or even nose low) if the critical AOA is exceeded; there's no single "safe" pitch/speed that guarantees no stall, though staying well below the critical AOA at any given moment avoids it.
6) How does an AOA indicator help avoid stalls over an airspeed indicator?
An AOA indicator directly displays the wing's actual angle of attack (the true stall parameter) regardless of weight, bank angle, or load factor, whereas airspeed indicator stall warnings are calibrated for specific conditions (e.g., 1G, particular weight/flap setting) and don't directly reflect AOA during accelerated or off-normal conditions.
Turning Tendencies
1) Name the four turning tendencies, causes, and when most pronounced
(1) Torque reaction — Newton's third law reaction to the spinning propeller, tending to roll/yaw the aircraft opposite prop rotation, most pronounced at low airspeed/high power (e.g., takeoff). (2) P-factor (asymmetric propeller loading) — the descending propeller blade has a higher AOA and more thrust than the ascending blade at high AOA/low airspeed, yawing the nose; most pronounced at high AOA and high power (e.g., climb). (3) Gyroscopic precession — a force applied to a spinning propeller disc (e.g., tailwheel lift-off pitching the prop disc) is felt 90° later in the direction of rotation; most pronounced in tailwheel aircraft during the 3-point-to-level pitch change on takeoff roll. (4) Spiraling slipstream — the corkscrewing propwash strikes the vertical stabilizer/rudder asymmetrically, yawing the nose; most pronounced at low airspeed/high power.
2) Is gyroscopic effect significant in tricycle vs. tailwheel aircraft?
It is far more significant in tailwheel aircraft, because raising the tail during the takeoff roll changes the pitch attitude of the spinning propeller disc, producing a strong precession-induced yaw; tricycle gear aircraft don't undergo that same pitch change on the ground roll, so precession effects are minimal.
3) Rudder use during climb-out, wings level; forces countered; comparison to power-on stalls
Right rudder is typically used (in U.S. clockwise-rotating engines) to counteract the combined left-turning tendencies (torque, P-factor, spiraling slipstream, and gyroscopic precession); the amount is determined by keeping the ball centered/aircraft coordinated, not a fixed number. In power-on stalls, these same left-turning tendencies are even stronger (high power, high AOA, low airspeed), requiring significantly more right rudder to prevent a yaw that could lead to an uncoordinated, cross-controlled stall/spin entry.
Load Factors
1) What is G-force; effect on "weight" of an object?
G-force (load factor) is the ratio of aerodynamic force (lift) to the aircraft's weight, expressed in multiples of standard gravity; it effectively multiplies the apparent weight of everything in the aircraft (e.g., 2G doubles apparent weight).
2) Difference between weight and mass
Mass is the fixed quantity of matter in an object; weight is the gravitational force on that mass, which changes with G-loading/gravity.
3) 100 kg (220 lb) object at 2G and at 0G — effective weight?
At 2G: 440 lbs (2 × 220). At 0G: 0 lbs.
4) G's on an aircraft parked vs. in straight-and-level flight
1G in both cases (standard gravity, unaccelerated).
5) 2,800 lb aircraft — lift required for level flight and in a 2G situation
Level flight: 2,800 lbs of lift. At 2G: 5,600 lbs of lift.
6) What is Load Factor and how determined?
Load factor is the ratio of the lift (or total aerodynamic load) to the aircraft's weight, expressed in G units; determined by dividing total lift/aerodynamic load by aircraft weight, and for a level turn it can be calculated as 1/cos(bank angle).
7) In a bank, what force causes the aircraft to turn? (vector diagram)
The horizontal component of the tilted lift vector provides the centripetal force that turns the aircraft toward the center of the turn. [Draw: lift vector tilted from vertical by the bank angle; resolve into a vertical component (supporting weight) and horizontal component (centripetal turning force).]
8) In a level turn, what force keeps the aircraft from descending? (vector diagram)
The vertical component of the (increased) total lift vector must equal weight to maintain altitude — hence back pressure/added lift is needed in a level turn. [Same vector diagram as above: vertical component of lift = weight.]
9) Load factor in a 60° LEVEL turn
2 G's (load factor = 1/cos 60° = 1/0.5 = 2).
10) 60° bank but descending — same load factor?
Not necessarily — if descending, less total lift (and thus less load factor) may be needed to sustain the bank angle since vertical lift no longer needs to fully equal weight; load factor can be less than the level-turn value depending on the descent rate/flight path.
11) Stall speed in a 60° LEVEL turn
Stall speed increases by the square root of the load factor: √2 ≈ 1.41× the normal (1G) stall speed — about a 41% increase.
12) What is an accelerated stall and how does it occur?
A stall that occurs at a higher-than-normal (1G) airspeed because the wing is loaded beyond 1G (e.g., in a steep turn or abrupt pull-up), reaching the critical AOA at a higher speed than the standard published stall speed.
13) Limit load factors for Normal and Aerobatic category
Normal category: approximately +3.8/-1.52 G (flaps up). Aerobatic category: approximately +6/-3 G (varies by specific aircraft certification).
14) Reduced limit load factor with flaps deployed; maneuvers to avoid during stall recovery with full flaps
Many POHs specify a reduced positive limit load factor with flaps extended (e.g., +2.0 G). Avoid abrupt/steep pull-ups, steep turns, or aggressive stall recovery pull-outs with full flaps extended, since exceeding the reduced limit could overstress the airframe or flaps.
15) What is a Vg diagram; where do normal/accelerated stall speeds and maneuvering speed occur?
A Vg (velocity-vs-load-factor) diagram graphically shows the structural/aerodynamic limits of an aircraft across airspeeds. Normal (1G) stall speed is plotted at the bottom of the positive stall line at 1G; accelerated stall speeds increase along the parabolic stall line as G increases up to Va; PHAK Figure 5-55 shows the positive limit load factor (typically ~3.8G for normal category) occurring at maneuvering speed (Va), where the stall line intersects the structural limit line.
16) At what weight are stall speeds and Va determined?
Published stall speeds and maneuvering speed in the POH are typically determined/published at maximum gross weight.
17) G's on an aircraft once stalled and "free falling"
Approximately 0 G (or very close to it) momentarily at the moment of stall break, since the wing is no longer supporting the aircraft's weight and it begins to fall.
18) Definition of maneuvering speed; how does it change with weight; why?
Va is the maximum speed at which full, abrupt control deflection can be applied without exceeding the aircraft's structural limit load factor (the aircraft will stall before overstressing the structure). Va decreases as weight decreases, because a lighter aircraft reaches its (fixed) limit load factor (in G's) at a lower stall speed — since a lower gross weight requires less lift (and thus a lower speed) to reach the same G-multiple/limit load before stalling.
Radius of Turn
1) Mountain flying in a blind canyon with rising terrain — airspeed and bank angle effects on turn radius
Turn radius decreases with lower airspeed and increases bank angle (up to a safe limit), so slowing down (while maintaining a safe margin above stall) and increasing bank angle tightens the turn radius, helping to reverse course within a narrow canyon. Yes — this is exactly the moment to be thinking ahead about turn radius: a pilot flying into rising terrain with no room to climb over it must recognize early whether a 180° turn can be completed within the canyon width, and reverse course well before running out of maneuvering room, rather than continuing forward hoping for an opening.
Quiz 4 — Flight Controls and Aircraft Systems (Reciprocating Engines)
Reference: PHAK Chapters 6, 7; Airplane Flying Handbook
Flight Controls
1) Primary control surfaces and the movement each controls
Ailerons — roll (longitudinal axis); rudder — yaw (vertical axis); elevator — pitch (lateral axis).
2) How do ailerons change AOA and cause roll?
Deflecting an aileron down increases the camber/effective AOA of that wing (more lift); deflecting the opposite aileron up decreases camber/AOA (less lift) on that wing — the differential lift rolls the aircraft toward the wing with reduced lift.
3) What is adverse yaw and mitigation designs?
Adverse yaw is the tendency of the nose to yaw toward the wing with the raised (up) aileron, opposite the intended turn direction, because the down aileron creates more induced drag on the rising wing. Mitigations: Frise ailerons (up-aileron's leading edge protrudes into the airflow, adding drag on the down-going wing side to balance drag), differential ailerons (up aileron deflects more than down aileron, balancing drag), and coupled/interconnected rudder-aileron systems.
4) When does adverse yaw occur and how does the pilot counteract it?
It occurs whenever ailerons are applied to enter or roll out of a turn; the pilot counteracts it with coordinated rudder input in the direction of the turn.
5) Primary purpose of the rudder; when needed; how to determine amount; without the ball?
The rudder's primary purpose is to control yaw and maintain coordinated flight (and control adverse yaw, P-factor, torque effects, and crosswind correction). Needed during takeoff/climb, turns, slow flight, stalls, and crosswind landings. The amount is determined by keeping the aircraft coordinated — feel (seat of the pants) and visual cues (nose tracking straight, no slip/skid feel) can be used without referencing the ball, though the inclinometer (ball) is the primary instrument reference.
6) Difference between a stabilator and an elevator
An elevator is a hinged control surface on a fixed horizontal stabilizer. A stabilator is a single-piece, fully-moving horizontal tail surface that pivots as a whole to control pitch, typically more powerful/sensitive and often fitted with an anti-servo tab to provide artificial control feel.
7) Three main functions of flaps
Increase lift (allowing slower approach/landing speeds), increase drag (steeper descent without excess speed gain), and improve visibility over the nose during approach by allowing a flatter/lower deck angle.
8) Four basic types of flaps and how they affect lift/drag
Plain flap: hinges down from the wing's trailing edge, increasing camber (more lift and drag). Split flap: only the lower surface hinges down, increasing drag more than lift (camber effect on top surface remains, but strong drag from turbulent separation behind it). Slotted flap: a gap between wing and flap channels high-energy air over the flap's upper surface, delaying flow separation for greater lift with proportionally more efficient drag. Fowler flap: slides aft and down, increasing both chord (wing area) and camber, producing the greatest lift increase.
9) Why does the nose pitch up when flaps are first deployed, given flaps move center of lift aft?
Initial flap deployment increases lift suddenly (before drag/trim re-equilibrium), and the increased lift acting aft of the CG creates a nose-up pitching moment initially; but as the flap continues to move the center of lift/pressure aft and airflow over the tail changes, the net trimmed effect (once stabilized on final at full flaps) is typically a nose-down pitching tendency requiring nose-up trim to compensate.
10) How does approach-descent angle differ between full-flap and no-flap landing? Why?
Full flaps allow a steeper approach angle at a given airspeed because of the added drag (more descent for the same forward speed, without over-accelerating); no-flap approaches are flatter and require more distance to descend the same amount, or a higher approach speed.
11) What is Vref and how calculated? Different with no flaps?
Vref is the reference landing approach speed (typically 1.3× the stall speed in the landing configuration). It is different (usually higher) with no flaps, since no-flap stall speed is higher, so Vref (1.3 Vso vs. a no-flap 1.3 Vs1) increases accordingly.
12) Does stall speed change with weight; effect on approach speed if over/under gross?
Yes — stall speed increases with weight (√ of weight ratio). If significantly heavier than normal, approach speed should be increased proportionally; if lighter, approach speed can be reduced somewhat (never below a safe margin above the actual stall speed at that weight).
13) How does trim work; same direction as control surface? Compare to anti-servo tab
A trim tab is a small hinged surface on the trailing edge of a control surface; it deflects opposite to the desired control surface deflection — aerodynamic force on the tab pushes the main control surface in the desired direction (e.g., trim tab up deflects the elevator down, for nose-down trim). An anti-servo tab moves in the same direction as the stabilator (not opposite), adding resistance/feel to the control input and providing trim by re-centering neutral force at a new stabilator position.
14) Primary purpose of leading-edge devices
Leading-edge devices (slats, slots, Kruger flaps) increase the critical angle of attack and improve airflow over the wing at high AOA, delaying stall onset and improving low-speed lift/control.
Aircraft Systems: Reciprocating Engines
15) Cylinder arrangement; cooling method
Most modern GA piston engines use a horizontally-opposed cylinder arrangement, air-cooled by airflow directed over cooling fins on the cylinders (some older/antique designs use radial arrangements and some are liquid-cooled).
16) Two primary functions of engine oil
Lubrication (reducing friction/wear between moving parts) and cooling (carrying heat away from internal engine components); it also helps seal piston rings and clean/carry away contaminants.
17) Four-stroke (Otto cycle) operating cycle
Intake (piston descends, intake valve open, fuel/air mixture drawn in), Compression (both valves closed, piston rises, compressing the mixture), Power (spark ignites mixture near top of compression, expanding gases drive piston down), Exhaust (piston rises, exhaust valve open, spent gases expelled).
18) Normal combustion vs. pre-ignition and detonation; leading conditions
Normal combustion is a smooth, controlled flame front ignited by the spark plug that burns progressively across the cylinder. Pre-ignition is uncontrolled early ignition of the mixture before the spark fires (often from a hot spot such as a glowing carbon deposit or overheated spark plug). Detonation is uncontrolled, explosive/spontaneous combustion of the remaining unburned mixture after normal ignition, caused by excessive heat and pressure (often from too lean a mixture, low-octane fuel, high power/high manifold pressure combined with low RPM, or excessive cylinder head temperatures).
19) Detecting pre-ignition/detonation; time to intervene; what to do
Often detected by a rise in cylinder head temperature (CHT), rough running, or loss of power — sometimes with little to no warning before damage occurs, so prompt action is important as soon as any abnormal indication appears. To stop progression: enrich the mixture, reduce power/climb rate, increase airspeed for cooling, and open cowl flaps if equipped; land as soon as practical and have the engine inspected.
20) How to determine wrong fuel was used (Jet-A/Mogas in a 100LL aircraft); dangers; corrective action
Look for a fuel color mismatch (100LL is blue; Jet-A is clear/straw-colored and has a distinct kerosene smell), check fuel receipts/placards, and sump for contamination. Jet-A in a piston engine will not support proper combustion and can cause a complete loss of power (often shortly after takeoff once contaminated fuel reaches the engine). If discovered before flight, do not fly — have the fuel system drained/flushed and inspected by maintenance before further operation.
Magnetos and Spark Plugs
21) Number of magnetos and spark plugs typically per engine/cylinder
Typically two magnetos per engine, and two spark plugs per cylinder (one fired by each magneto).
22) How magnetos develop spark; battery required? Engine run with total electrical failure?
Magnetos are self-contained generators driven mechanically by the engine that use a rotating magnet to induce high-voltage current for spark, independent of the aircraft's electrical/battery system. No battery power is required for them to function. Yes — the engine will continue to run with a complete battery/alternator electrical failure, since the ignition system (magnetos) is independent of the aircraft electrical system.
23) Can a magneto be turned off? Purpose of the P-lead?
Yes, via the ignition/magneto switch, which grounds the magneto through the P-lead (primary lead) to stop it from firing. The P-lead's purpose is to ground out (short) the magneto to shut it off; if the P-lead is broken/disconnected, the magneto cannot be turned off via the switch — a serious ground-safety hazard (the propeller can still fire if moved, even with the switch "off").
24) Why two spark plugs per cylinder; does one magneto fire both plugs on a cylinder?
Two spark plugs per cylinder improve combustion efficiency (more complete/faster burn from two ignition points) and provide redundancy. No — each magneto fires only one of the two spark plugs in each cylinder (the "left" magneto fires one set, the "right" magneto fires the other set).
25) RPM drop on single-mag check; action if drop exceeds 100 RPM; likely cause and fix
A small, expected RPM drop occurs on each single-magneto check because only half the spark plugs are firing, slightly reducing combustion efficiency. If the drop exceeds the POH limit (often ~100-150 RPM, or exceeds max allowable differential between mags), the flight should not be continued until the issue is resolved. Likely causes include a fouled spark plug or magneto timing/ignition problem; a common fix attempt is leaning the mixture and running the engine at higher RPM briefly to help clear a fouled plug, then rechecking; if it doesn't clear, maintenance is required.
26) How to tell if you have a broken P-lead; danger?
A broken P-lead is often suspected if turning the magneto/ignition switch to "OFF" does not cause any RPM drop or the engine doesn't stop (the magneto stays "hot"). The danger is that the propeller can fire and start the engine unexpectedly during ground handling (e.g., hand-propping or moving the prop) even though the switch appears off — a serious risk of injury.
Oil
27) Two primary purposes of oil
Lubrication and cooling (also aids sealing and contaminant removal — see Q16 above).
28) How much does oil weigh per quart/gallon?
Approximately 1.65-1.9 lbs per quart (commonly used value ~1.875 lbs/quart), or roughly 7.5 lbs per gallon.
29) Loss of oil pressure — actions and next instrument to check
Check the oil temperature gauge next (rising oil temp with falling oil pressure strongly suggests an actual oil problem rather than a faulty gauge). Reduce power, prepare for a precautionary landing at the nearest suitable airport, and if pressure continues to drop or temperature rises, treat it as an impending engine failure and select a landing site.
Carburetor
30) Where fuel/air are mixed in a carbureted engine
In the carburetor venturi/throat, upstream of the intake manifold, before entering the cylinders.
31) How the mixture is adjusted
By the mixture control, which adjusts the fuel metering needle/valve to change the fuel-to-air ratio, compensating for decreasing air density with altitude (leaning) or providing a rich mixture for takeoff/high power.
32) How carb ice forms; temperature range; conducive conditions; power settings
Carb ice forms from the temperature drop caused by fuel vaporization and the venturi effect (pressure drop) in the carburetor, which can cause moisture in the induction air to freeze even when outside air temperature is well above freezing. It can occur with outside air temperatures as high as 70-100°F (21-38°C) and relative humidity above ~50-60%, most commonly in the 20-70°F range with high humidity/visible moisture. Low power settings (low manifold pressure/more closed throttle plate, e.g., descent/idle) promote the most carb ice because of a greater pressure/temperature drop across a more restricted throttle.
33) Detecting carb ice in fixed-pitch vs. constant-speed prop aircraft; actions
Fixed-pitch: a gradual, unexplained loss of RPM (and possible engine roughness) with no throttle change. Constant-speed: a gradual loss of manifold pressure (RPM stays constant due to the governor) with possible roughness. Action: apply full carburetor heat immediately (expect a momentary further RPM/MP drop and roughness as ice melts, then recovery), and leave carb heat on until clear of icing conditions.
34) At what power settings should carb heat use be routinely considered?
At reduced power settings, especially in the descent/approach phase (e.g., power reduced below the green arc), and anytime conditions are conducive to icing, even in warm weather with high humidity.
35) Effect of carb heat on mixture ratio and performance
Carb heat introduces warmer, less dense, unfiltered air, which enriches the fuel/air mixture (more fuel relative to less dense air) and typically causes a slight power/RPM loss when applied in ice-free conditions.
36) Hot day, carb heat applied downwind, bounced landing, go-around — engine coughs — what happened, prevention?
With carb heat still on during the go-around, the engine receives an overly rich mixture from the warm, less-dense air combined with full-rich mixture, causing rough running/hesitation right when full power is needed most. Prevention: push carb heat OFF (cold) as part of the go-around procedure/full-power application, and always verify carb heat is off before or during application of full power on a go-around.
37) Two damaging/risky results of a backfire from an over-primed (flooded) engine
An intake backfire can ignite fuel/vapor in the induction system or air filter, potentially starting a fire; a backfire through the exhaust can damage the muffler/exhaust system or, in rare cases, cause an explosion in the exhaust system.
Fuel Injection
38) Where fuel/air mix in a fuel-injected system; difference from carbureted
Fuel is injected directly into (or very near) each cylinder's intake port (or into the intake manifold near each cylinder), rather than being mixed centrally in a carburetor venturi upstream — giving more even fuel distribution to each cylinder.
39) What is a throttle body; a fuel control unit?
The throttle body meters incoming air volume (like a carburetor's throttle plate, but passes only air, no fuel). The fuel control unit meters fuel flow based on throttle position/engine demand and sends it to the fuel distributor/injectors for each cylinder.
40) Why are fuel-injected engines prone to difficult hot starts; hot start procedure?
After shutdown, residual heat can vaporize fuel in the injector lines/fuel distributor, causing vapor lock and flooding/rich starting difficulty. Yes, most POHs for fuel-injected engines include a specific hot-start procedure (often involving mixture at idle cutoff/lean, throttle open, and cranking to clear vapor, then normal start sequence), which pilots should follow per their specific aircraft's POH.
41) Are fuel-injected systems prone to carb ice/induction icing outside IMC?
Fuel-injected engines are not prone to carburetor ice (they have no carburetor venturi), but they can still be susceptible to induction/impact icing (ice blocking the air intake/filter) in visible moisture or icing conditions, which is why many have an alternate air source.
Quiz 5 — Aircraft Systems
Reference: PHAK Chapter 7
Fuel System
1) High-wing vs low-wing fuel delivery to carburetor; why
High-wing aircraft can often use gravity feed (fuel tanks above the engine/carburetor, fuel flows down by gravity) as a backup or sole means; low-wing aircraft (tanks at or below engine level) require an engine-driven and/or electric fuel pump to lift fuel to the carburetor/engine.
2) Electric and engine-driven mechanical fuel pump — does your trainer have both, and why?
Most training aircraft (especially low-wing, and many high-wing types) have both an engine-driven pump (primary) and an electric backup pump, providing redundancy in case the engine-driven pump fails, and the electric pump is also used for priming/starting.
3) Why not over-prime; dangers?
Over-priming floods the engine (excess raw fuel in the cylinders/intake), which can hinder starting, wash oil off cylinder walls, and creates a fire hazard from excess fuel pooling in the induction system, or backfire risk.
4) Fuel tank location/capacity/usable fuel (aircraft-specific)
Varies by aircraft — check your specific POH; e.g., a typical Cessna 172 has two wing tanks totaling ~50-56 gallons total, with slightly less usable (a small unusable quantity in each tank).
5) Gallons remaining in each tank for 30-min VFR day reserve; how to be sure?
Calculate fuel burn rate (gal/hr) × 0.5 hr to determine the minimum gallons required per FAR 91.151 reserve; the only truly reliable way to know exact remaining fuel is careful preflight fullness verification, accurate fuel burn tracking in flight, and (where installed) calibrated fuel totalizers — floats/gauges alone are not fully reliable.
6) Fuel system components (tanks, selector, shutoff, strainer/gascolator, sumps, vents) — functions
Fuel tanks store fuel; the fuel selector allows choosing which tank(s) feed the engine (or off); the shutoff valve stops fuel flow (e.g., for emergencies/maintenance); the strainer/gascolator filters sediment/water from fuel before the engine and provides a low point to drain contaminants; sump drains allow the pilot to check for water/contamination at low points (tanks, selector, strainer); fuel vents allow air to enter tanks as fuel is consumed, preventing a vacuum that would stop fuel flow.
7) What fuel grades are available; which can you safely use?
Common avgas grades include 100LL (blue) and UL94/unleaded avgas; use only the fuel grade(s) specified in your POH/aircraft placards (using an unapproved fuel can cause detonation or engine damage).
8) Wrong fuel type discovered — what to do; danger?
Do not start/fly the aircraft; have the fuel system drained and properly serviced by maintenance. Danger: wrong fuel (e.g., Jet-A in an avgas engine) can cause complete power loss; even wrong avgas octane can cause detonation and engine damage.
9) How does water get into fuel; what to do if found while sumping?
Water enters through condensation in partially-filled tanks, contaminated fuel at the source, or a faulty fuel cap seal. If found while sumping, continue sumping until the fuel runs clear and water-free; if water persists, do not fly and have the aircraft serviced.
10) Conditions leading to detonation; action if suspected after takeoff
Detonation results from excessive heat/pressure — too lean a mixture, low-octane fuel, high power/high manifold pressure with low RPM, or high CHT. If suspected shortly after takeoff, enrich the mixture, reduce power/climb angle, increase airspeed to improve cooling, monitor CHT, and land as soon as practical to have the engine inspected.
Electrical System
11) Functions of electrical components
Battery: stores DC electrical energy (typically 12V or 24V) for engine starting and as backup power. Alternator: generates AC current (rectified to DC) to power the electrical system and recharge the battery in flight, typically rated in amps at a nominal system voltage. Generator: an older DC-generating device (produces DC directly); less efficient at low RPM than an alternator and largely superseded by alternators. Master/Battery switch: connects/disconnects the battery from the electrical system. Alternator/Generator switch: connects/disconnects the alternator/generator field circuit from the system. Alternator Control Unit/Voltage Regulator: regulates alternator output to maintain proper system voltage and prevent overcharging. Bus bar: distributes positive current to various electrical components; the aircraft's metal structure typically serves as the return/ground (negative) path. Circuit breakers: protect individual circuits fed from the bus bar from overcurrent/short circuits. Ammeter shows charge/discharge current to/from the battery; Load meter shows total electrical system load/output from the alternator; Voltmeter shows system voltage — used to assess whether the alternator is properly charging (normal voltage) or if there's a low-voltage/charging problem.
12) What is "field" current; will alternator work with a dead battery?
Field current is the small current supplied to the alternator's rotating field winding to create the magnetic field needed for the alternator to generate output. Typically, an alternator needs some initial field excitation current from the battery to "self-excite" — with a completely dead battery, many light-aircraft alternators will not initially energize/produce output.
13) Advantage of an alternator over a generator
Alternators produce rated output at lower engine RPM (e.g., idle/taxi) and are lighter, more efficient, and more reliable than generators, which required higher RPM to produce sufficient output.
14) Does ignition need battery/alternator power; will engine run with total electrical failure?
No — magneto ignition is self-contained and independent of the aircraft battery/alternator; the engine will continue running with a complete electrical system failure (though electrically-dependent items like radios, lights, and some fuel pumps would be lost).
15) Why a separate avionics switch/bus from the primary bus?
To protect sensitive avionics from voltage transients/spikes that can occur during engine start or master switch operations, by allowing the avionics to be powered down separately during those events.
16) Equipment relying on electric power
Radios/avionics, some flight instruments (turn coordinator, some attitude indicators, GPS), lights (position, landing, strobe/beacon), electric fuel pump, flaps (if electric), pitot heat, stall warning horn, and starter.
17) Low-voltage/alternator light illuminates — troubleshooting; how to bring alternator back online
Check the alternator circuit breaker (reset once if popped, per POH), cycle the alternator switch off then on, reduce non-essential electrical loads, and monitor the ammeter/voltmeter; if it won't reset/stay online, treat as an alternator failure.
18) Alternator failure in flight — actions; how long can you operate; conserving battery
Reduce electrical load to essentials only (turn off non-essential avionics/lights), land as soon as practical, and monitor battery voltage. Operating time depends on remaining battery capacity and load — can range from a very short time (high load) to significantly longer with minimal load; conserve power by shutting off all non-essential equipment (one radio, minimum lighting, no autopilot) and cycling equipment on briefly only when needed (e.g., for a radio call).
19) How to handle a popped circuit breaker in flight
You may reset it once (per most POHs); if it pops again, leave it out and do not continue resetting it, since a recurring trip usually indicates a fault (overload or short) that could pose a fire/electrical risk.
20) Smell of burning plastic/smoke from under the panel
Turn off the master switch (and individual equipment) to isolate the source, use a fire extinguisher if flames appear, ventilate the cabin if safe to do so, and land as soon as possible; consider shutting off avionics bus/individual breakers to try to isolate a specific circuit if trained/able to do so safely.
21) Longest time to engage the starter before cooling down; why?
Typically no more than about 10 seconds of continuous cranking (varies by POH), with a cool-down/rest period between attempts, to prevent overheating and damaging the starter motor.
22) How should batteries be charged, in or out of the aircraft, and why?
Lead-acid aircraft batteries are typically best charged with the battery removed from the aircraft (or per the specific charger/POH guidance) using an appropriate slow charger, in a ventilated area, since charging vents flammable hydrogen gas and can risk damage to sensitive avionics if charged in place without proper precautions/isolation.
Hydraulic Systems
23) Hydraulically-activated systems on your trainer; components to inspect
Most basic single-engine trainers have few or no hydraulic systems (brakes are typically hydraulic); some aircraft with retractable gear or flaps use hydraulics for those systems. Inspect fluid reservoirs, lines/hoses for leaks, and actuators/cylinders for proper operation and fluid level.
24) Type of fluid used
Typically MIL-H-5606 (petroleum-based, red) hydraulic fluid for brakes and most light aircraft hydraulic systems — check the specific POH/service manual for the exact specification.
Fixed Pitch Prop
25) Why does a propeller blade twist to flat at the tips?
Because the tip travels a greater distance (higher rotational speed) per revolution than the root, the blade is twisted with a lower pitch angle at the tip and higher angle near the root to maintain a more uniform, efficient angle of attack along the entire blade.
26) How does a propeller generate thrust?
The propeller blades are rotating airfoils; as they spin through the air, they generate an aerodynamic force (similar to a wing generating lift) oriented forward along the axis of rotation — that forward force component is thrust.
27) Items to inspect on a propeller
Nicks, cracks, scratches, corrosion, pitting, security of the spinner/attachment bolts, and overall condition of the blades and hub.
28) Size limit for nicks/scratches/cracks requiring mechanical evaluation
Varies by prop manufacturer/type, but generally any crack requires immediate maintenance evaluation, and nicks/scratches beyond specified depth (often around 1/16" to 1/8" depending on prop and location) require a mechanic's assessment/dressing out before further flight — consult the specific prop manual/POH.
Constant Speed Prop
29) How does propeller pitch affect RPM change?
Increasing blade pitch (flatter angle to steeper/coarser) increases the "bite"/resistance and decreases RPM at a given power; decreasing pitch (finer/flatter) reduces resistance and increases RPM.
30) How is pitch changed on a constant-speed prop?
Engine oil pressure (boosted by a governor) acts on a piston in the propeller hub to change blade pitch angle, automatically maintaining the RPM selected by the pilot via the propeller (RPM) control.
31) How does a prop governor work?
The governor senses engine RPM and adjusts oil pressure/flow to the prop hub to increase or decrease blade pitch as needed to maintain the RPM set by the pilot's prop control, regardless of throttle/power changes (within its operating range).
32) Default pitch setting with loss of oil pressure (single-engine)
Most single-engine constant-speed props default to full fine/low pitch (high RPM) upon loss of oil pressure (spring/counterweight loaded toward flat pitch), unlike multi-engine feathering props which typically go to a coarse/feathered position.
33) Engine "overspeed" — what's happening; what would you do?
An overspeed means the propeller governor has failed to control RPM, allowing engine/prop RPM to exceed limits (often due to loss of oil pressure to the governor or a mechanical prop control failure); reduce throttle/power to bring RPM back within limits, and land as soon as practical.
34) Manifold pressure changes with engine running at full throttle vs. closed throttle, and why
At full throttle, manifold pressure approaches ambient atmospheric pressure (minimal restriction); at closed/idle throttle, manifold pressure drops well below ambient because the nearly-closed throttle plate creates a strong restriction/vacuum in the intake manifold as the engine still tries to draw air.
35) Why does manifold pressure rise when RPM is reduced?
Reducing RPM (with throttle position held constant) reduces the engine's air demand, so less restriction/pressure drop occurs across the throttle plate, allowing manifold pressure to rise closer to ambient.
36) Manifold pressure reading, engine off, standard day: sea level vs. Denver
At sea level (engine off, standard day), manifold pressure reads approximately 29.92 inHg (ambient pressure). In Denver (elevation ~5,000+ ft), it would read the lower ambient pressure at that field elevation, roughly 24-25 inHg.
37) Relationship between manifold pressure/RPM and % power
Percent power is roughly proportional to the product of manifold pressure and RPM (both together determine power output); POH power-setting tables/charts show specific % power for given MP/RPM combinations at a given altitude and mixture setting — a "square" relationship (MP number roughly matching RPM in hundreds) is a common rule of thumb for cruise power management.
38) With loss of engine power, what can you do with the prop control to reduce drag and increase glide range?
Pull the prop control to the low RPM (coarse pitch) setting; this reduces windmilling drag from the propeller, which decreases descent rate and increases glide distance/range.
39) Preflighting a constant-speed prop — what else to inspect?
In addition to the blades, inspect the hub for oil leaks/security, the spinner/bulkhead for cracks or looseness, and check for proper freedom of blade movement (no excessive play) and any visible damage to the pitch-change mechanism.
Quiz 6 — Flight Instruments
Reference: PHAK Chapter 8; 14 CFR 91.205, 91.213
Required and Inoperative Equipment
1) Four places to look for required equipment for day/night VFR
(1) Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)/aircraft equipment list, (2) 14 CFR 91.205 (day and night VFR minimum equipment lists), (3) Aircraft's operating limitations/POH, and (4) any applicable Airworthiness Directives requiring specific equipment — these four sources are referenced together per 91.213(d)(2).
2) Mnemonic for day VFR equipment (91.205); why useful despite other sources/checklists?
A common mnemonic is "A TOMATO FLAMES" (Airspeed indicator, Tachometer, Oil pressure gauge, Manifold pressure gauge (if applicable), Altimeter, Temperature gauge (for liquid-cooled engines), Oil temperature gauge, Fuel gauge, Landing gear position indicator (if retractable), Anti-collision lights, Magnetic compass, Emergency Locator Transmitter, Safety belts/restraints). It's useful as a quick memory-jogger for the day-VFR list specifically, even though 91.213(d)(2) still requires checking the other three sources, because it lets a pilot quickly self-check the most commonly-missed baseline equipment before digging into type-specific or AD-driven requirements.
3) Inoperative equipment not required by any of the four checklists — can you fly, and how to document it legally?
Yes, you may fly if the inoperative item is not required by any of the four sources and is not a hazard to safe flight; it must be removed or deactivated/placarded "Inoperative," and the deactivation/removal recorded in the aircraft maintenance records (typically by a mechanic per 91.213(d)(3)).
4) Required equipment fails at an away airport with a mechanic — how to get the aircraft home?
Have the mechanic repair it if possible; if not repairable there and the aircraft is otherwise safe to fly, a Special Flight Permit (Ferry Permit) may be obtained from the FAA (per 14 CFR 21.197/21.199) to fly the aircraft (often with limitations, e.g., avoiding IMC or specific routing) to a location where repairs can be made.
Pitot-Static Instruments
1) Pitot tube design — front opening and rear drain hole purposes
The front opening faces directly into the relative wind to sense ram (dynamic + static) air pressure; the small drain hole at the bottom/rear allows any moisture that enters to drain out, preventing water from blocking the line or freezing.
2) Total pressure in a pitot tube and its two components
Total (pitot) pressure = dynamic pressure (from aircraft's forward motion) + static pressure (ambient atmospheric pressure).
3) How does an airspeed indicator determine dynamic pressure?
The ASI compares total (ram) pressure from the pitot line against static pressure from the static port; the difference is dynamic pressure, which the instrument's diaphragm/mechanism converts into a calibrated airspeed reading.
4) How an altimeter works; function of the Kollsman window
An altimeter is an aneroid barometer that senses static (ambient) air pressure and translates it into an altitude reading via a calibrated aneroid wafer stack and gear mechanism. The Kollsman window allows the pilot to set the local altimeter setting (barometric pressure reference), adjusting the instrument to read true altitude (MSL) relative to that pressure datum.
5) Airspeed indicator markings and related V-speeds
White arc: Vso to Vfe (flap operating range). Green arc: Vs1 to Vno (normal operating range). Yellow arc: Vno to Vne (caution range, smooth air only). Red line: Vne (never-exceed speed). Some aircraft also mark Va (maneuvering speed, not always arced) and a barber pole for Vmo/Mmo in high-performance aircraft.
6) Define Indicated Airspeed (IAS); where found
IAS is the direct, uncorrected reading shown on the airspeed indicator face, found by simply reading the ASI gauge in the cockpit.
7) Define Calibrated Airspeed (CAS); where found; difference from IAS at low speed vs. cruise
CAS is IAS corrected for installation and instrument error. It is found via a correction table/chart in the POH. The difference between IAS and CAS is typically greatest at low airspeeds/high AOA (e.g., near stall) and minimal at normal cruise speeds.
8) Define True Airspeed (TAS); parameters needed to calculate
TAS is CAS corrected for non-standard pressure (altitude) and temperature — the aircraft's actual speed through the air mass. It requires pressure altitude and outside air temperature (along with CAS) to calculate, typically via an E6B or flight computer.
9) Error if IAS substituted for CAS in TAS calculation, in cruise?
At normal cruise speed the IAS-to-CAS difference is usually very small (often just a knot or two), so the resulting TAS error from substituting IAS for CAS is typically minor/negligible in cruise, though it grows larger at low airspeeds.
10) Under what conditions does IAS = TAS?
Approximately at standard sea-level pressure and temperature conditions (29.92" Hg, 15°C), with no instrument/position error — essentially only near sea level on a standard day.
11) TAS at 10,000 ft MSL, 160 kts IAS, altimeter 30.07, OAT 14°C; ground speed with no wind
Using pressure altitude (≈10,000 - (30.07-29.92)×1000 ≈ 9,850 ft) and OAT 14°C with an E6B/flight computer, TAS comes out to approximately 187-188 knots. With zero wind component, ground speed would equal TAS, approximately 187-188 knots.
12) Ground speed with a 20-kt headwind (from Q11 scenario)
Approximately TAS minus 20 kts ≈ 167-168 knots ground speed.
13) Effect of non-standard temperature/pressure on the altimeter
Non-standard (lower than standard) pressure and colder-than-standard temperature both cause the altimeter to read higher than the aircraft's true altitude (the aircraft is actually lower than indicated) — remembered by "high to low, look out below" for pressure, with cold temperature having a similar effect requiring caution, especially over mountainous/cold terrain.
14) How a VSI works; function of the calibrated leak
A VSI compares the instantaneous static pressure inside a diaphragm to static pressure in a surrounding case that changes more slowly through a calibrated leak (metering restriction), so the diaphragm sees a pressure differential proportional to the rate of altitude change, driving the needle to indicate rate of climb/descent. The calibrated leak's function is to create that necessary time lag/differential.
15) How barometric pressures are reported — actual or adjusted; why?
Reported altimeter settings are adjusted to sea-level equivalent pressure (not the raw station pressure), so that altimeters at airports of different elevations can be set to a common, comparable reference for accurate cross-country altitude reporting/separation.
16) Units of barometric pressure; feet of altitude per inch of Hg
Reported in inches of mercury (inHg) in the U.S. Approximately 1,000 feet of altitude per 1 inch of Hg (near sea level, using the standard lapse rate approximation).
17) ASI behavior if pitot tip is plugged (drain hole open)
The ASI will act like an altimeter — as the aircraft climbs, trapped pitot pressure stays constant while static pressure drops, causing the ASI to falsely indicate increasing airspeed; conversely it will falsely show decreasing airspeed during descent, regardless of actual airspeed.
18) ASI behavior if both pitot tip and drain hole are plugged
The trapped pressure in the pitot line becomes sealed, and the ASI will typically freeze at the last reading (or behave erratically/unreliably) and not respond to actual airspeed changes.
19) Ice occludes static ports at 10,000 ft — ASI behavior if staying level, and if descending
If static ports are blocked while the pitot tube remains clear, the trapped static pressure stays constant. While remaining level, the ASI will read roughly correctly at that constant altitude (since only static pressure feeds the case, and it stays fixed while true static pressure also doesn't change if level). If descending toward the airport, true static pressure increases (denser air) while the trapped reference stays the same, making the ASI read progressively lower than actual airspeed as you descend.
20) Altimeter and VSI behavior with iced-over static ports; what to do
Both the altimeter and VSI will freeze at the values present when the ports became blocked and will no longer respond accurately to actual altitude/climb changes. Use the alternate static air source (if equipped) to restore accurate readings, or if unequipped, carefully break the instrument glass on the VSI as a last resort per some emergency procedures (rare/aircraft-specific), while primarily relying on outside references and pitch/power for control.
21) Cabin pressure relative to outside pressure (naturally aspirated aircraft); effect of alternate static air
Due to airflow over/around the aircraft (Bernoulli effect), cabin pressure in an unpressurized aircraft is typically slightly lower than outside ambient static pressure. Using alternate static air (which draws from the cabin) will therefore typically cause the altimeter to read slightly higher than actual, the ASI to read slightly higher than actual, and the VSI to show a momentary false climb indication when first selected.
22) How the transponder reports altitude to ATC; source; part of the static system?
Via Mode C (or Mode S) altitude reporting, sourced from an altitude encoder that senses pressure and transmits pressure altitude data to the transponder for relay to ATC. The encoder typically has its own independent static source/sensor, separate from (though similar in principle to) the pilot's primary static system — not literally part of the pitot-static instrument system.
23) Why pitot-static and transponder checked together; how often?
Both rely on accurate static pressure sensing, so they are logically tested together to ensure consistent, accurate altitude reporting for both the pilot's instruments and ATC's radar display. Required every 24 calendar months for IFR operations (14 CFR 91.411 and 91.413).
Gyroscopic Instruments
1) Typical vacuum-driven instruments; which is usually electric?
Attitude indicator (AI) and heading indicator (directional gyro, DG) are traditionally vacuum-driven; the turn coordinator is usually electrically driven.
2) Principle of rigidity; precession
Rigidity in space: a spinning gyroscope resists changes to the plane of its rotation, maintaining its orientation regardless of the aircraft's movement around it. Precession: when a force is applied to a spinning gyroscope, the resulting reaction is felt approximately 90° later in the direction of rotation, not at the point of applied force.
3) Principle behind AI and DG operation
Both operate on the principle of rigidity in space — a rapidly spinning gyro (vacuum or electrically driven) maintains a fixed orientation in space, against which the aircraft's actual pitch/bank (AI) or heading (DG) is measured/displayed.
4) What does it mean if the AI "tumbles"?
The gyro has exceeded its designed pitch/bank limits (e.g., from an aggressive/unusual attitude or gyro spin-up issue), causing the gimbal to hit its mechanical stops and the instrument to give erroneous, tumbled indications until it re-erects (may take several minutes).
5) What does it mean if the DG "precesses"?
The heading indicator has drifted from the actual magnetic heading due to inherent friction/gyroscopic precession over time and must be periodically realigned/reset to the magnetic compass.
6) DG drift per hour from friction (even without precession error)
Typically up to about 3° per 15 minutes, or roughly 10-12° per hour, from inherent mechanical friction/precession, requiring periodic realignment to the magnetic compass (roughly every 15 minutes).
7) Principle behind Turn Coordinator; what motion does it detect?
Operates on precession, with its gyro canted about 30° from the aircraft's longitudinal axis, allowing it to sense both roll rate and yaw rate — displaying rate of turn (and initial roll rate) rather than just bank angle.
8) What is an inclinometer? "Step on the ball" meaning
The inclinometer (the "ball" in a curved glass tube) shows whether the aircraft is in coordinated flight by indicating the relative pull of gravity vs. centrifugal force. "Step on the ball" means apply rudder pressure on the side toward which the ball has moved, to center it and restore coordinated flight.
9) Why does the ball sit centered in level flight?
In coordinated, unaccelerated level flight, gravity acting straight down on the ball is unopposed by any lateral (centrifugal) force, so it settles in the center of the tube.
10) Banking left without rudder, ball falls into the bank (left) — type of flight?
A slip (specifically, an uncoordinated slipping turn) — insufficient rudder for the amount of bank.
11) Stepping on the ball (left rudder) after a slip — what force re-centers the ball?
Adding rudder yaws the nose into the turn, generating centrifugal force that balances gravity's pull on the ball, moving it back to center — restoring coordinated flight.
12) Straight-and-level, step on left rudder without banking — ball direction; type of uncoordinated flight?
The ball moves to the right (away from the applied rudder), and this is called a skid (specifically, yaw without corresponding bank).
13) What is a standard rate turn; how determined; only via turn coordinator?
A standard rate turn is 3° per second (360° in 2 minutes, or a "half-standard rate," 1.5°/sec/4-min turn for faster aircraft). It's determined by referencing the turn coordinator's standard-rate index marks, but it can also be flown using a calculated bank angle (see below) with reference to the attitude indicator or outside visual cues.
14) Formula to approximate bank angle for a standard rate turn
Bank angle (degrees) ≈ (TAS in knots ÷ 10) + 7 (e.g., at 100 kts: 10+7 = 17° bank for a standard rate turn).
15) Why is it helpful to estimate this bank angle?
It provides a backup method to fly a standard rate turn using the attitude indicator (or visual bank reference) if the turn coordinator fails, minimizing the number of instruments needed to reference if inadvertent IMC is encountered.
16) How to tell if a gyroscopic instrument isn't working correctly
Cross-check it against other instruments/outside references for consistency (e.g., compare AI/DG/turn coordinator indications with each other and with visual references); an instrument showing indications inconsistent with the others, or a flagged/failed indicator, suggests a malfunction.
Magnetic Compass
1) Magnetic variation vs. deviation
Variation is the angular difference between true north and magnetic north (caused by the Earth's magnetic field not aligning with the geographic poles). Deviation is the additional compass error caused by magnetic interference from the aircraft's own electrical/metal components, unique to each aircraft/heading.
2) Magnetic course vs true course; Seattle vs. Vermont examples
Magnetic course = true course corrected for variation. In the Seattle area (significant easterly variation, ~15-17°E), true north corresponds to a magnetic course reading well east of 360° (e.g., roughly 343-345° magnetic points to true north). In Vermont (westerly variation, ~14-16°W), true north corresponds to a magnetic heading east of 000°, i.e., roughly 014-016° magnetic points toward true north.
3) What is magnetic dip angle; where largest?
Magnetic dip is the vertical tilting/pull of the compass card toward the nearest magnetic pole due to the vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field; it is largest (most severe, causing greatest compass errors) near the magnetic poles and least near the magnetic equator.
4) Compass lead/lag turning north vs. south
In the Northern Hemisphere, when turning to a heading of North, the compass lags behind the turn (indicates a turn is needed even after reaching north, so roll out before reaching North on the compass); when turning to South, the compass leads the turn (indicates South before you actually get there, so roll out past South, i.e., continue turning beyond the indicated South).
5) Compass behavior on east/west headings, accelerating (descend+power) vs decelerating (pitch up+reduce power)
On east or west headings, acceleration causes the compass to swing/indicate a turn toward North (ANDS: Accelerate North, Decelerate South); deceleration causes it to indicate a turn toward South, even though the aircraft is actually still on a constant east/west heading.
6) How is a compass "calibrated" (swung)?
A qualified technician positions the aircraft on a calibrated compass rose at various headings, compares the aircraft's magnetic compass reading to the known correct heading at each cardinal/intercardinal point, adjusts the compensator magnets to minimize deviation, and records the remaining deviation on a compass correction card mounted near the compass.
Electronic Displays
1) What provides attitude/heading info to modern electronic displays; gyros/vacuum required; reliability vs. steam gauges
Modern glass-panel displays typically use an Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS), which combines solid-state MEMS gyroscopes, accelerometers, and magnetometers (with GPS aiding) rather than traditional spinning mechanical gyros. They do not require a vacuum system. AHRS-based systems are generally considered more reliable and require less maintenance than older vacuum-driven "steam gauge" gyros, which are prone to vacuum pump failure and mechanical wear.
Quiz 7 — Aircraft Documents and Maintenance
Reference: PHAK Chapter 9; 14 CFR 91.403; 14 CFR 43 Appendix A
1) Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?
The owner/operator (14 CFR 91.403).
2) Who is the final authority for operation of an aircraft?
The Pilot in Command (14 CFR 91.3).
3) Which aircraft require an annual inspection? 100-hour? Differences in required elements?
All certificated aircraft require an annual inspection (by an A&P with Inspection Authorization). Aircraft used for hire or flight instruction for hire require a 100-hour inspection (by any A&P). The scope/checklist items required (per 14 CFR 43 Appendix D) are essentially the same for both; the difference is who may perform the inspection and the interval, not the content.
4) 100-hour overdue but not at a repair facility — how far may it be flown?
Up to 10 hours beyond the 100-hour interval to reach a location where the inspection can be performed, but the excess time counts toward the next 100-hour interval (14 CFR 91.409(b)).
5) POH vs. AFM; which is required onboard?
The Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) is the manufacturer's aircraft-specific operating manual (not always FAA-approved in its entirety); the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) is the FAA-approved document (often incorporated within/attached to the POH) containing the approved operating limitations. The FAA-approved AFM (or its approved sections, often bound within the POH) is required to be on board the aircraft.
6) 10 standardized sections of POH/AFM (since 1975) and general content
1. General (aircraft description/basic specs), 2. Limitations, 3. Emergency Procedures, 4. Normal Procedures, 5. Performance, 6. Weight and Balance/Equipment List, 7. Airplane and Systems Description, 8. Handling, Service, and Maintenance, 9. Supplements (optional equipment info), 10. Safety and Operational Tips.
7) What are the "AROW" and "AVIATE-A" acronyms?
AROW: required documents onboard the aircraft — Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, Operating limitations (POH/AFM/placards), Weight and balance data. AVIATE-A style mnemonics vary by source but generally expand required-documents/inspection reminders (e.g., adding items like radio station license if applicable); check your specific course material's exact expansion, as it's not a single universally standardized FAA acronym like AROW.
8) Friend hands you keys to his new-to-him 172 — what must you verify as PIC before flying?
Confirm required documents are aboard (AROW), check for a current annual inspection, 100-hour if applicable, transponder/altimeter (24-month) checks if relevant, ELT battery status, ADs complied with, and any open squawks/inoperative equipment addressed per 91.213 — essentially perform a thorough airworthiness review, not just a normal preflight.
9) Owner-performed maintenance without A&P certification — what's allowed; reference?
An owner/operator (not a mechanic) may perform specific preventive maintenance items listed in 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A (e.g., changing oil/filter, servicing tires, replacing bulbs, spark plugs on certain aircraft) as long as the aircraft is not used under Part 121/135/135 operations, and the work is properly logged.
10) What are Airworthiness Directives (ADs) and how do they apply?
ADs are FAA-mandated corrective actions for unsafe conditions found in a specific aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance design; compliance is legally required for all affected aircraft within specified time/cycle limits to remain airworthy.
11) What is a ferry permit and when might it be required?
A Special Flight Permit (ferry permit) authorizes flight of an aircraft that does not currently meet airworthiness requirements (e.g., overdue inspection, known deficiency, or after-repair positioning) to a location for maintenance, repair, storage, or sale, under FAA-specified conditions/limitations (14 CFR 21.197/21.199).
Quiz 8 — Weight and Balance
Reference: PHAK Chapter 10
1) Standard Empty Weight vs Basic Empty Weight
Standard Empty Weight is the airframe, engine(s), all fixed/standard equipment, unusable fuel, and full operating fluids (oil) as delivered from the factory. Basic Empty Weight is the standard empty weight plus any optional/installed equipment specific to that aircraft.
2) What is Maximum Gross Weight?
The maximum weight approved for the aircraft under normal operating conditions, as certified by the manufacturer/FAA.
3) How are max landing, ramp, and takeoff weights used?
Max ramp weight includes fuel for taxi/runup and can't be exceeded before engine start; max takeoff weight is the maximum weight allowed at brake release for takeoff (ramp weight minus taxi fuel burn); max landing weight is the maximum weight allowed at touchdown (relevant for aircraft that burn significant fuel and could exceed structural landing limits if landing overweight).
4) How is useful load calculated?
Useful Load = Maximum Gross Weight − Basic Empty Weight (includes usable fuel, pilot, passengers, baggage, and cargo).
5) Two 172s, one with lots of extra equipment — same Standard Empty Weight? Basic Empty Weight? Which has better useful load?
Standard Empty Weight would be the same for both (same base airframe/engine configuration as delivered). Basic Empty Weight would be higher for the aircraft with more installed optional equipment. The aircraft with fewer options (lower Basic Empty Weight) has the better (higher) useful load, since Max Gross Weight stays the same for both.
6) Define Center of Gravity (CG)
The point along the aircraft's longitudinal (and sometimes lateral) axis where the aircraft would balance if suspended — the point through which the total weight effectively acts.
7) Where can a Datum be located; how to determine a Station/Arm; where to find this info?
The datum is an arbitrary reference point/plane established by the manufacturer (can be at the nose, firewall, wing leading edge, or even a point ahead of the aircraft) from which all measurements are taken. A Station (Arm) is the horizontal distance from the datum to a specific point/item. This info is found in the aircraft's POH/AFM Weight and Balance section (Section 6).
8) Relationship of Weight, Arm, and Moment
Moment = Weight × Arm.
9) Standard weights for Avgas and Oil
Avgas: 6 lbs/gallon. Oil: 7.5 lbs/gallon.
10) Weight/CG/moments/arms calculation for two 180-lb pilots, 40 lb baggage, max fuel; effects of moving baggage to a pilot's lap; burning down to 1-hour reserve
This requires your specific aircraft's actual empty weight, arm, and station data from its POH/weight and balance record — work through it with your instructor using the aircraft's real numbers: sum each item's weight × arm = moment, total the weights and moments, then CG = Total Moment ÷ Total Weight. Moving baggage onto a pilot's lap shifts that weight's arm forward (toward the front seat position), typically moving CG slightly forward. Burning fuel removes weight at the fuel tank's arm, shifting CG toward whichever direction the remaining items' average CG lies (commonly slightly aft for aircraft with fuel ahead of the empty-aircraft CG, but this varies by type — verify with your own W&B data).
11) At what weight are V-speeds determined; how does performance change at reduced weight; estimating V1/V0/Va/Vref changes
V-speeds are typically published at maximum gross weight. At reduced weight, most V-speeds (stall-based speeds, approach speed) decrease. Va decreases proportionally to roughly the square root of the weight ratio (lighter weight = lower Va). Stall-speed-based approach speeds (Vref) also decrease roughly with the square root of the weight ratio. There isn't a standard "V1/V0" designation in light single-engine GA POHs (V1 is a transport-category takeoff decision speed) — for GA aircraft, refer to the POH's specific reduced-weight performance charts/graphs rather than a simple formula for takeoff/landing distances.
12) Where is CG generally located relative to Center of Lift?
Forward of the center of lift/pressure for most conventional designs.
13) If CG is always forward of Center of Lift, what force balances the aircraft?
A download (negative lift) produced by the horizontal stabilizer/tail, balancing the nose-down moment created by the wing's lift acting aft of the CG.
14) How does CG location affect required wing lift; two ways to increase wing lift; performance effects
A more forward CG requires a greater tail-down force, which in turn requires the wing to produce more total lift to support both aircraft weight and the tail's downward load — increasing induced drag and reducing efficiency/performance. Lift can be increased by increasing angle of attack or increasing airspeed (or wing area via flaps).
15) Performance differences: max forward CG vs. aft CG
Stall speed: generally slightly higher at forward CG (more wing lift needed) and slightly lower at aft CG. Cruise speed: slightly better (faster) at aft CG due to reduced drag from less required wing lift; forward CG is slightly slower. Fuel efficiency/range: improved (better) at aft CG due to lower drag; forward CG burns slightly more fuel for the same performance. Stability/stall recovery: forward CG gives greater longitudinal stability and easier, more predictable stall/spin recovery; aft CG reduces stability and can make stall/spin recovery more difficult or even unrecoverable if beyond limits. Flare to land: forward CG requires more elevator authority (up-elevator) to flare, potentially difficult at very forward CG/low speed; aft CG makes the flare easier/lighter but with reduced stability margin.
Quiz 9 — Aircraft Performance
Reference: PHAK Chapter 11; POH
Structure of Atmosphere and Atmospheric Pressure
1) Percentage of atmosphere: Nitrogen? Oxygen?
Approximately 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen (remaining ~1% other gases, e.g., argon, CO2).
2) Define atmospheric pressure; is it a weight?
Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air column above a given point; yes, it is fundamentally the weight of the air pressing down per unit area.
3) Approximate "weight" of atmosphere at sea level (psi)
Approximately 14.7 psi.
4) Why does pressure decrease with altitude?
Because there is progressively less air (and thus less weight of air) above a given point as altitude increases.
5-6) Standard pressure/temperature lapse rates; constant to what altitude
Pressure: ~1 inHg/1,000 ft (roughly constant through the lower atmosphere, ~ up to 18,000-36,000 ft depending on the approximation used). Temperature: ~2°C (3.5°F)/1,000 ft, constant up to 36,000 ft (top of the troposphere in the standard atmosphere).
7) Are these lapse rates always constant?
No — actual lapse rates vary with weather conditions (inversions, fronts, surface heating), differing from the theoretical "standard" values.
8) How does low pressure at altitude affect performance? High temperature?
Both reduce air density, which reduces engine power (less oxygen for combustion), propeller efficiency (less "bite" in thin air), and wing lift — resulting in longer takeoff rolls, reduced climb rates, longer landing rolls (higher true groundspeed at touchdown), and reduced service ceiling. High temperature has the same net effect as reduced pressure/higher altitude (both raise density altitude).
9) Standard sea-level temperature and pressure
15°C (59°F) and 29.92 inHg.
10) How is barometric pressure reported; adjusted?
Reported as an altimeter setting, adjusted to sea-level equivalent pressure from the actual station pressure and field elevation.
11) Why adjust to Sea Level Pressure (SLP)?
Adjusting to SLP allows pilots at any field elevation to set a comparable, standardized altimeter reference so their indicated altitude reads true MSL altitude, rather than each pilot needing to know/apply their own field's raw station pressure.
Pressure, Density Altitude
12) Define pressure altitude; how calculated
Pressure altitude is altitude above the standard datum plane (29.92" Hg); calculated by setting the altimeter to 29.92 and reading indicated altitude, or by applying the correction (1,000 ft per 1" Hg difference from 29.92) to field elevation.
13) Pressure altitude at KRIL, barometer 30.92 and 29.92
KRIL (Garfield County, elevation ≈ 5,548 ft). At 30.92: (29.92-30.92)=-1.00 → -1,000 ft → PA ≈ 4,548 ft. At 29.92 (standard): PA = field elevation ≈ 5,548 ft.
14) Pressure altitude at KRFD, SLP 28.82 and 30.02
KRFD elevation ≈ 741 ft. At 28.82: (29.92-28.82)=1.10 → +1,100 ft → PA ≈ 1,841 ft. At 30.02: (29.92-30.02)=-0.10 → -100 ft → PA ≈ 641 ft.
15) Flying at 10,000 ft indicated, altimeter set to 30.42 — pressure altitude?
(29.92-30.42) = -0.50 → -500 ft correction → PA ≈ 9,500 ft.
16) Define Density Altitude; parameters needed
Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature — the altitude in the standard atmosphere that corresponds to the existing air density. Requires pressure altitude and outside air temperature to calculate.
17) Effect on air density climbing to "High Density Altitude"
Air density decreases (becomes thinner), reducing aircraft/engine/propeller performance as if flying at a higher actual altitude than the airplane's true (geometric) altitude.
18) Density altitude at KRIL/KRFD examples with 0°C and 37°C
Using each field's pressure altitude from above combined with the given temperatures (comparing to the ISA standard temp at that pressure altitude) via a density altitude chart or E6B: colder-than-standard temps (0°C) yield a density altitude lower than pressure altitude; hot temps (37°C) yield a density altitude substantially higher than pressure altitude — work each example with a density altitude chart/E6B using the specific pressure altitudes computed above.
19) Define TAS; how calculated
True airspeed is CAS corrected for non-standard pressure (altitude) and temperature, representing the aircraft's actual speed through the air mass; calculated using pressure altitude, OAT, and CAS on an E6B or flight computer.
20) TAS/ground speed at KRIL and KRFD, 70 kt IAS final approach, no wind
At higher density altitude (as at KRIL, a high-elevation mountain airport), TAS will be noticeably higher than the 70-kt IAS — meaning ground speed on final (in no wind) will also be higher, requiring a longer landing roll and different visual/energy management than at low-density-altitude KRFD, where TAS/ground speed will be much closer to the 70-kt indicated value.
21) Difference between IAS and CAS at cruise vs. slow airspeeds
The difference is typically very small at cruise speed and grows larger (more significant) at slow airspeeds/high AOA, such as near stall.
22) Does IAS for approach/landing/stall change flying into a high-elevation airport like Telluride?
No — IAS (and therefore the indicated stall speed/approach speed) remains the same regardless of field elevation/density altitude, since it's an indicated value based on dynamic pressure; however, the resulting TAS and ground speed will be higher at the high-elevation airport for the same IAS.
23) How does TAS change relative to IAS with altitude; when does IAS=TAS?
TAS increases relative to IAS as altitude increases (roughly 1.5-2% per 1,000 ft) because air density decreases. IAS ≈ TAS only near sea level under standard conditions.
24) How does ground speed relate to TAS?
Ground speed = TAS adjusted for the headwind/tailwind component (TAS minus headwind, or plus tailwind).
25) How does humidity affect performance; charts/formulas to factor it in?
Higher humidity decreases air density (water vapor is lighter than the dry air it displaces), slightly degrading performance (longer takeoff roll, reduced climb). Most standard GA POH performance charts do not explicitly factor in humidity (they use pressure altitude and temperature only), so humidity's effect is generally treated as an additional safety margin/conservative buffer rather than a chart input.
Aircraft Climb, Cruise, Glide Performance
26) Difference between thrust and power
Thrust is a force (pounds) produced by the propeller; power is the rate of doing work (thrust × velocity, typically expressed in horsepower) — power accounts for both force and speed, while thrust alone does not.
27) Doubling horsepower — does cruise speed double?
No — because drag (and power required) rises steeply with speed (roughly with the cube of speed in the parasite-drag regime), doubling horsepower yields only a modest speed increase, far from doubling.
28) Effect of doubling horsepower on climb performance; why
Climb performance improves significantly (much more so than cruise speed), because climb rate depends on excess power (power available minus power required for level flight) — doubling horsepower substantially increases that excess power margin, directly boosting rate of climb.
29) How does gross weight affect climb performance; why?
Higher gross weight reduces climb performance (lower rate and angle of climb) because more of the available excess power/thrust must go toward supporting the additional weight rather than accelerating/climbing, and induced drag increases at the higher AOA needed to support more weight.
30) Define Vs1, Vso, Va, Vle, Vfe, Vno, Vne, Vr, Vg
Vs1: stall speed in a specified (usually clean/cruise) configuration. Vso: stall speed in landing configuration. Va: design maneuvering speed. Vle: max landing-gear-extended speed. Vfe: max flap-extended speed. Vno: max structural cruising speed (top of green arc). Vne: never-exceed speed. Vr: rotation speed (takeoff). Vg: best-glide speed.
31) At what weight is Vg determined; does it change with weight; relation to pitch attitude?
Vg (best glide speed) is published at max gross weight; it decreases somewhat at lighter weights (since less speed is needed to achieve L/Dmax AOA at lower weight). Pitch attitude is the practical control used to achieve/hold the target glide airspeed — a specific pitch attitude corresponds to the correct Vg for a given configuration/weight.
32) Is L/Dmax related to Best Glide? How?
Yes — best glide speed is the airspeed that corresponds to L/Dmax (the point of minimum total drag/maximum lift-to-drag ratio), which yields the greatest gliding distance per unit of altitude lost.
33) Glide distance per 1,000 ft; does it change with weight, headwind/tailwind?
Each aircraft has a published glide ratio (e.g., roughly 1.5-2 NM per 1,000 ft AGL for typical trainers) — check your POH. Glide ratio (distance per 1,000 ft, in still air) does not change significantly with weight if the correct Vg is flown for that weight (though the airspeed needed does change). A headwind reduces glide distance over the ground; a tailwind increases it.
34) What is Vx; weight-determined; changes with weight/altitude?
Vx is best angle of climb speed (maximum altitude gain per unit of horizontal distance), published at max gross weight; it increases somewhat with altitude and varies with weight (generally decreases slightly at lighter weight, though POH tables typically show it changing with altitude more than weight).
35) What is Vy; weight-determined; changes with weight/altitude?
Vy is best rate of climb speed (maximum altitude gain per unit of time), published at max gross weight; it decreases as altitude increases and generally decreases somewhat at lighter weights.
36) Vx and Vy at absolute ceiling
At the absolute ceiling, Vx and Vy converge to the same single airspeed, since climb rate there is zero and there's only one speed where level flight is (just barely) sustainable.
37) Define Absolute ceiling vs. Service ceiling
Absolute ceiling: the altitude at which the aircraft can no longer climb at all (rate of climb = 0). Service ceiling: the altitude at which maximum rate of climb decreases to a specified small value (typically 100 fpm for single-engine piston aircraft).
38) What is L/Dmax and how determined?
The maximum ratio of lift to drag for the aircraft, occurring at a specific AOA/airspeed; determined from flight test data and published as best glide speed/L over D max point on the aircraft's performance data.
39) Define max endurance and how determined
Max endurance is the airspeed/power setting that yields the most flight time per unit of fuel (minimum fuel flow), typically slower than best-range speed, occurring near minimum power required (bottom of the power-required curve).
40) Define max range; relation to L/Dmax; difference from max endurance
Max range is the airspeed/power setting yielding the greatest distance per unit of fuel, occurring at (or near) L/Dmax airspeed for propeller aircraft. It differs from max endurance in that max range optimizes distance covered, while max endurance optimizes time aloft (usually a slower, lower-power speed than max range).
41) Approximate power/airspeed for max range; altitude dependence; usefulness
Typically found in the POH cruise performance charts (often a specific % power setting/airspeed near L/Dmax). It's helpful for flight planning fuel reserves and especially useful for handling unanticipated delays, weather diversions, or extending range/endurance in an emergency (e.g., fuel-critical) situation. It can vary somewhat with altitude per the POH charts.
42) Where does region of reverse command occur?
At airspeeds below L/Dmax (the "back side" of the power-required curve), where more power is needed to fly slower.
43) PHAK Fig 11-14 "power required curve" — where do slow flight/final approach fall?
They fall on the back (left) side of the power-required curve, in the region of reverse command, below the speed for minimum power required.
44) In region of reverse command, what most rapidly changes airspeed vs. altitude; pitch or power?
In the region of reverse command, pitch primarily controls airspeed most directly/rapidly, while power primarily controls altitude/rate of descent — essentially the reverse of the normal "pitch for altitude, power for airspeed" relationship used in the normal command region.
Takeoff and Landing Performance
45) Landing/takeoff distances over a 50-ft obstacle at C77 under various conditions (a-e)
These require pulling actual numbers from your specific aircraft's POH performance charts using the given pressure altitude (from barometer/field elevation), temperature, weight, and wind component for each scenario — work through each (a-e) with your instructor and the POH charts, since results are aircraft-specific.
46) Extra landing roll on Runway 21 at KSEZ (downhill/upslope-specific)
A downsloping runway increases landing roll (harder to stop, gravity aids forward motion); consult the POH's runway slope correction (commonly ~+ a percentage per 1% slope, or specific chart data) — verify KSEZ's specific runway 21 slope/elevation data and apply the POH correction.
47) Landing distance: wet grass, 2% downslope, 5-kt tailwind, approach 10% fast
Each factor independently increases landing distance significantly (wet grass reduces braking friction; downslope adds distance; tailwind substantially increases distance — often ~10% per knot of tailwind per some rules of thumb; excess approach speed adds float/distance, often ~10% distance increase per 10% excess speed, compounding). Combined, landing distance could increase by 50-100%+ over the normal dry, level, no-wind, correct-speed landing distance — always use the POH's specific correction factors/charts rather than a single rule of thumb for actual planning.
48) Reference materials for runway contamination/landing performance
AC 91-79A (mitigating risk of runway excursions), AIM 4-3-9 (runway condition reports), and the ALAR (Approach and Landing Accident Reduction) briefing notes from Flight Safety Foundation, along with the specific aircraft POH.
Quiz 10 — Weather Theory
Reference: FAA-H-8083-28A Aviation Weather Handbook; PHAK Chapter 12
The Atmosphere, Pressure, and Heat Transfer
1) Basic composition of the atmosphere
About 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and roughly 1% other gases (argon, CO2, water vapor, etc.).
2) Describe the Troposphere; where most weather occurs
The lowest layer of the atmosphere (surface up to roughly 20,000-40,000+ ft depending on latitude/season, ~36,000 ft average), characterized by decreasing temperature with altitude; virtually all weather phenomena occur here.
3) How is atmospheric pressure measured; approx PSI at sea level; corresponding barometric pressure
Measured with a barometer (aneroid or mercury); ~14.7 psi at sea level, corresponding to 29.92 inHg.
4) Atmospheric pressure at 18,000 ft relative to sea level; why?
Approximately half of sea-level pressure (~14.9-15 inHg vs. 29.92 inHg), because roughly half of the atmosphere's total mass lies below 18,000 ft.
5) Three types of heat transfer with examples
Conduction: direct transfer through contact (e.g., ground heating the air molecules directly touching it). Convection: transfer via fluid/air movement carrying heat (e.g., a thermal/rising bubble of warm air). Radiation: transfer via electromagnetic waves without a medium (e.g., sunlight warming the Earth's surface).
6) Difference between Temperature and Heat
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy (molecular motion) of a substance; heat is the total thermal energy transferred between substances due to a temperature difference.
7) How energy transfers from sun to earth's surface; type; visible/invisible
Solar (electromagnetic) radiation travels through space and the atmosphere largely without heating the air directly, then is absorbed at the Earth's surface. It includes both visible light and invisible wavelengths (infrared, ultraviolet) — similar to how microwaves heat food directly via electromagnetic radiation without significantly heating the surrounding air.
8) What happens to the earth's surface once it absorbs the energy?
The surface warms and then re-radiates that heat as longwave (infrared) radiation, and also transfers heat to the air above it by conduction and convection.
9) Why does the earth heat unevenly?
The sun's angle of incidence varies with latitude (more direct/concentrated near the equator, more oblique/spread out near the poles), and surfaces absorb/reflect heat differently (e.g., blacktop absorbs and re-radiates heat much faster than grass, similar to how the poles receive indirect, spread-out sunlight compared to the equator).
10) How much radiant heat passes through atmosphere without warming it; how is air heated; sun or contact?
Most incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere with relatively little direct warming of the air itself; the air is heated mostly indirectly, by contact/conduction and convection from the sun-warmed earth's surface, rather than directly absorbing sunlight itself.
11) Once air is heated, what does it do and how does it mix?
Heated air becomes less dense and rises (convection), mixing with surrounding cooler air through turbulent convective currents and larger-scale atmospheric circulation.
12) What are convective currents; where do updrafts/downdrafts occur?
Convective currents are vertical air movements caused by uneven surface heating. Updrafts occur over warmer surfaces (e.g., plowed fields, blacktop, rocky terrain, urban areas); downdrafts occur over cooler surfaces (e.g., water, forests, shaded areas) as compensating sinking air.
13) Describe global atmospheric circulation (simple terms)
Warm air rises at the equator and moves poleward aloft, cooling and sinking around 30° latitude (subtropical high), some flowing back toward the equator (trade winds) and some continuing poleward, creating a three-cell circulation pattern (Hadley, Ferrel, Polar cells) per hemisphere, further modified by the Coriolis effect and land/ocean distribution.
14) Coriolis effect on wind direction (N. Hemisphere)
The Coriolis force deflects moving air to the right of its path in the Northern Hemisphere, so a wind originating from the south is deflected to appear to come more from the southwest (deflected easterly relative to its origin), and a wind from the north is deflected to appear to come more from the northeast (deflected westerly).
15) How is atmospheric pressure measured (repeat)?
With an aneroid or mercury barometer, expressed in inches of mercury (inHg) or millibars/hectopascals.
16) Standard sea-level pressure and temperature
29.92 inHg and 15°C (59°F).
17) How local barometric pressure readings are adjusted; why?
Station (actual) pressure is corrected to sea-level equivalent pressure using the station's elevation, so altimeter settings are standardized/comparable across airports at different elevations.
18) Rate of pressure decrease with altitude; constant to what altitude; pressure above 30,000 ft (zero?)
Roughly 1 inHg per 1,000 ft near the surface (the rate isn't perfectly linear at higher altitudes, decreasing more gradually). This approximation holds reasonably well through the lower atmosphere; above 30,000 ft pressure continues to decrease but is not zero — there is still measurable (though thin) atmosphere well above 30,000 ft, with pressure approaching zero only near the edge of space.
19) Rising vs. falling barometer — associated weather
Rising barometric pressure is generally associated with improving/fair weather (high pressure, clearing skies); falling pressure is generally associated with deteriorating weather (approaching low pressure system, clouds, precipitation).
20) Airflow in low-pressure vs. high-pressure systems
In the Northern Hemisphere: air circulates counterclockwise and inward (converging) toward a low-pressure system, with rising motion at the center (cyclonic). Around a high-pressure system, air circulates clockwise and outward (diverging), with sinking motion at the center (anticyclonic).
21) Detecting high/low pressure from a winds-aloft chart
Look at the wind circulation pattern — counterclockwise-curving winds suggest a low-pressure center nearby; clockwise-curving winds suggest a high-pressure center nearby.
22) Convective current comparison: sunny summer day over rocky area vs. large cold body of water
A sunny rocky area heats quickly and strongly, generating strong updrafts/convective currents (and potential thermal turbulence); a large cold body of water heats very slowly and stays relatively cool/stable, generally producing sinking air/downdrafts and more stable conditions nearby (little to no convective activity).
23) Sea breeze vs. land breeze
Sea breeze: during the day, land heats faster than water, air rises over land creating lower pressure, and cooler air flows from the sea toward land at the surface. Land breeze: at night, land cools faster than water, and the pattern reverses — cooler air flows from land toward the (relatively warmer) sea.
24) How buildings/trees near a runway affect landing aircraft
They can create mechanical turbulence, wind shear, and wake-like disturbances downwind of the obstacles, causing sudden sink or turbulence on short final, particularly in gusty crosswind conditions.
25) Most dangerous side of a mountain for downdrafts/turbulence
The leeward (downwind) side of a mountain, where strong downdrafts, rotor turbulence, and mountain wave effects are most severe, especially with strong winds perpendicular to the ridge.
26) Low-level wind shear — directions; associated conditions
Can occur vertically and/or horizontally, with variations in wind speed/direction and gust factor; associated with frontal passages, thunderstorms/microbursts, temperature inversions, and strong surface winds around obstructions.
27) Why is low-level wind shear so dangerous?
It occurs close to the ground where there's little altitude margin to recover, and can cause rapid, large changes in airspeed/performance (sudden loss of lift or airspeed) during the critical takeoff or landing phase.
28) What is a microburst; downdraft strength; headwind/tailwind shift; performance effect
A microburst is a small, intense downdraft (often from a thunderstorm) that spreads out upon hitting the ground; downdrafts can exceed 6,000 fpm, with resulting horizontal outflow winds and shifts of 45+ knots possible (headwind rapidly becoming a tailwind as an aircraft flies through it). This shift can cause a sudden loss of airspeed/lift and severe altitude loss during approach or departure.
29) Detecting a microburst visually; what is virga?
A microburst may be visible as an intense, localized rain shaft or a distinctive "curl" pattern at the base of a cumulonimbus cloud. Virga is precipitation visible falling from a cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground — often associated with dry microburst potential.
30) How a wind barb represents direction/speed
The shaft points in the direction the wind is blowing FROM (oriented toward the station); barbs/feathers on the end represent speed — a half-barb ≈5 kts, full barb ≈10 kts, a flag/pennant ≈50 kts.
31) What are Isobars; closely spaced meaning
Isobars are lines connecting points of equal atmospheric pressure. Closely spaced isobars indicate a strong pressure gradient, associated with stronger winds.
32) Atmospheric stability vs. instability; airflow direction
A stable atmosphere resists vertical motion (displaced air tends to return to its original level — associated with smooth air, stratiform clouds, poor visibility/haze); an unstable atmosphere favors vertical motion (displaced air continues rising — associated with turbulence, cumuliform clouds, showers/thunderstorms, good visibility).
33) The "Adiabatic" process; what happens to pressure/volume/temperature as air rises/descends
Adiabatic processes involve temperature change due to compression/expansion without heat being added or removed from outside the parcel. As air rises, it moves into lower pressure, expands, and cools; as it descends, it moves into higher pressure, compresses, and warms.
34) What is a temperature inversion; two ways it forms?
A temperature inversion is a layer where temperature increases with altitude (opposite the normal decrease). Common causes: radiational cooling of the surface on clear, calm nights (surface-based inversion), and warm air overriding cooler air at a frontal boundary (frontal inversion), or subsidence of air in a high-pressure system.
35) How does temperature affect the atmosphere's water-vapor-holding capacity?
Warmer air can hold significantly more water vapor than colder air; as air cools, its capacity to hold water vapor decreases, which is why cooling promotes condensation/saturation.
36) Three phases of water; energy absorbed/released with phase change?
Solid (ice), liquid (water), and gas (water vapor). Energy is absorbed when changing to a higher-energy state (melting, evaporation, sublimation) and released when changing to a lower-energy state (freezing, condensation, deposition).
37) Define Evaporation, Sublimation, Condensation with examples
Evaporation: liquid water changing to vapor (e.g., a puddle drying). Sublimation: solid ice changing directly to vapor without becoming liquid (e.g., snow disappearing on a cold, dry, sunny day; dry ice "smoking"). Condensation: water vapor changing to liquid (e.g., dew forming, cloud droplets forming).
38) Latent heat and sensible heat; calories exchanged per gram/kg of water in evaporation/condensation
Latent heat is the heat absorbed or released during a phase change without a temperature change (e.g., condensation releases latent heat, warming the surrounding air). Sensible heat is heat that causes a measurable temperature change (felt/sensed). Approximately 540-600 calories are exchanged per gram of water evaporated/condensed (roughly 540-600 kcal per kg, or 1 liter).
39) Compare condensation vs. evaporative heat transfer
Condensation releases latent heat into the surrounding air (warming it — this is a key energy source fueling thunderstorm updrafts); evaporation absorbs latent heat from the surrounding air (cooling it, e.g., the cooling felt from sweat evaporating, or evaporative cooling of falling rain).
Relative Humidity, Dew Point, Fog
41) How are temperature and dew point related?
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled (at constant pressure/moisture content) to become saturated (100% relative humidity); the closer the actual temperature is to the dew point, the higher the relative humidity.
42) Define dew point; risk if temp/dew point spread is only 1°C just before sunset
Dew point: the saturation temperature for the current moisture content of the air. A narrow (1°C) spread just before sunset is a strong indicator that radiational cooling overnight will likely bring temperature down to the dew point, forming fog — a significant IFR/visibility risk for early morning departures.
43) Temperature/dew point convergence rate; height clouds form given 20°C temp, 15°C dew point
Convergence rate is approximately 4.4°F per 1,000 ft (or as stated, 4.4°C per some references — commonly cited as 4.4°F/1,000 ft; using the 2.5°C/1,000ft or similarly approximated convergence rate depending on source). Using a spread of 5°C (20-15) and a convergence rate of ~2.5°C/1,000 ft (a commonly used rounded rate), cloud base forms roughly 2,000 ft AGL. (Check your ground school's specific convergence-rate constant, as some texts use 4.4°F/1,000ft ≈ 2.5°C/1,000ft — apply consistently.)
44) Four ways air can cool to saturation and form fog/clouds
(1) Radiational cooling (surface cools by radiating heat away, especially clear calm nights), (2) advection (warm moist air moving over a colder surface), (3) upslope cooling (air forced up rising terrain, expanding/cooling adiabatically), (4) evaporation/mixing (moisture added to air, e.g., rain evaporating into cooler air below a cloud, raising the dew point until saturation).
45) How does dew form; conditions for frost; is frost dangerous on an aircraft?
Dew forms when objects cool (via radiational cooling) below the dew point of the surrounding air, causing water vapor to condense directly on the surface. Frost forms similarly but when the surface temperature is at or below freezing, causing deposition (vapor to ice) directly. Yes, frost is dangerous on an aircraft — even a thin layer disrupts smooth airflow over the wing, increasing stall speed and reducing lift; it must be removed before flight.
46) How does earth's surface cool; faster on clear vs. cloudy nights; why does calm wind promote cooling
The surface cools by radiating heat away (radiational cooling) after sunset. It cools faster on a clear night because there are no clouds to trap/reflect the outgoing longwave radiation back down (a cloudy night traps heat like a blanket, slowing cooling). Calm wind promotes cooling because it allows a thin layer of air right at the surface to cool without being mixed with/replaced by warmer air above (wind machines on farms prevent frost by mechanically mixing warmer air aloft down to the surface, disrupting this calm, cooling layer).
47) What is radiation fog; conditions; why the name?
Radiation fog forms from surface radiational cooling on clear, calm nights with adequate moisture, typically in low-lying areas; it's called "radiation" fog because it results directly from the surface's radiational heat loss cooling the air above it to saturation.
48) What is advection fog; example
Advection fog forms when relatively warm, moist air moves horizontally over a colder surface, cooling to saturation; a common example is warm ocean air moving over cold coastal waters/land, common along coastlines like San Francisco or New England.
49) What is upslope fog; where found?
Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is mechanically forced up rising terrain, cooling adiabatically to saturation; common on the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains/Great Plains foothills.
50) What is "Sea Smoke"?
A form of evaporation (steam) fog that forms when very cold, dry air moves over relatively warmer water, causing rapid evaporation that immediately re-condenses as a visible mist/fog rising off the water surface.
Cloud Types and Naming Conventions
51) Define Alto, Stratus, Cumulus, Cirrus, Nimbus; combined meanings
Alto: middle-altitude clouds (prefix). Stratus: flat, layered/sheet-like clouds. Cumulus: puffy, heap-like clouds with vertical development. Cirrus: high, thin, wispy ice-crystal clouds. Nimbus: rain-producing clouds. Combined: Nimbostratus = a layered cloud producing steady precipitation; Cumulonimbus = a towering, vertically developed cloud producing showery/thunderstorm-type precipitation.
52) Typical altitudes: Stratus, Cirrus, Cumulonimbus
Stratus: low clouds, surface to ~6,500 ft. Cirrus: high clouds, generally above 20,000 ft. Cumulonimbus: can have bases in the low-to-middle levels but extend vertically through the entire troposphere, tops reaching 40,000-60,000+ ft.
53) What state/form of water is in Cirrus clouds?
Ice crystals (Cirrus clouds form at very cold, high altitudes where water exists only as ice).
54) What are cumulonimbus; cause; why dangerous?
Cumulonimbus are towering thunderstorm clouds caused by strong, unstable, moist air undergoing vigorous convective lifting. They're dangerous due to severe turbulence, hail, lightning, strong up/downdrafts, icing, heavy rain, and potential for tornadoes/microbursts.
55) How is a ceiling defined; difference between overcast and broken?
A ceiling is the height of the lowest layer of clouds reported as broken, overcast, or an obscuration (not "few" or "scattered"). Broken means 5/8 to 7/8 sky coverage; overcast means 8/8 (full) sky coverage.
56) How are ice pellets formed; what do they indicate about the atmosphere aloft?
Ice pellets (sleet) form when snowflakes melt falling through a warm layer aloft, then refreeze into ice pellets falling through a subfreezing layer near the surface; their presence indicates a temperature inversion aloft (warm layer above a cold surface layer) and warns of possible freezing rain nearby/above.
57) Difference between hail and ice pellets; where does hail come from?
Hail forms inside strong thunderstorm updrafts, where ice particles are repeatedly carried up and down through supercooled water layers, accumulating layers of ice until too heavy to be supported by the updraft. Ice pellets (sleet) form from melted snow refreezing on the way down through a shallow cold layer near the surface, without the repeated updraft cycling of hail.
58) Aircraft covered in frost overnight — action needed and safe removal method
Frost must be completely removed before flight (it disrupts airflow, increases stall speed). Remove it using approved methods — deicing fluid, a soft brush/broom, or by letting the aircraft warm in a heated hangar — avoiding metal scrapers or abrasive tools that could scratch paint or windows/canopy.
Airmasses and Frontal Systems
59) Where do air masses typically form; Polar vs Tropical; Maritime vs Continental
Air masses form over large, uniform source regions where they can acquire consistent temperature/moisture characteristics (e.g., polar regions, tropical oceans). Polar = cold source region; Tropical = warm source region. Maritime = forms over water (moist); Continental = forms over land (dry).
60) Examples: Maritime Polar, Continental Tropical, Maritime Tropical origins
Maritime Polar: North Pacific/North Atlantic (cold, moist). Continental Tropical: Mexico/southwestern U.S. desert regions (hot, dry). Maritime Tropical: Gulf of Mexico/Caribbean/tropical Atlantic and Pacific (warm, moist).
61) Cool dry airmass over warm ground — stability/visibility; moist airmass — weather; where common in US?
A cool, dry air mass moving over a warmer surface becomes unstable (heated from below) with good visibility (unless surface dust is stirred); if the air mass is moist instead, this instability produces good visibility but showery/convective weather (cumulus buildups, possible thunderstorms) — common in the Midwest/Great Plains during spring/summer as continental polar air modifies over warm ground.
62) Warm airmass over colder surface — stability/visibility/weather; where common?
A relatively warm air mass moving over a colder surface becomes stable (cooled from below), producing poor visibility (haze, fog, stratus clouds) and smooth but potentially IFR conditions — common along the West Coast (e.g., California coastal stratus) and in coastal New England during onshore flow.
63) Define a Front and how it forms
A front is the transition zone/boundary between two air masses of different temperature and/or moisture characteristics; it forms where these differing air masses meet and interact.
64) Four types of fronts and their chart symbols
Cold front (blue line with triangles pointing in direction of movement), warm front (red line with semicircles pointing in direction of movement), stationary front (alternating blue triangles and red semicircles pointing opposite directions), and occluded front (purple line with alternating triangles and semicircles pointing in the direction of movement).
65) Warm front: how it occurs, relative speed, what happens to warm air
A warm front occurs when a warm air mass advances and overrides a retreating cooler air mass; warm fronts move relatively slowly; the warm air rises gradually up and over the shallow-sloped cold air ahead of it, forming widespread, gradually lowering cloud layers.
66) PHAK Fig 12-25: how far ahead does warm front weather spread; associated clouds/visibility/precip
Warm front weather/cloud sequence can extend several hundred miles (often cited as 300-500 NM) ahead of the surface front position. Typical cloud sequence progresses from high cirrus, to altostratus, to nimbostratus as the front nears, with visibility gradually decreasing and steady precipitation (rain/drizzle/snow) — excluding possible embedded summer thunderstorms.
67) Cold front: how it occurs, relative speed/density/stability; what happens to cold air
A cold front occurs when a cold, dense air mass actively advances and undercuts a retreating warmer air mass; cold fronts move relatively fast and are dense/unstable; the cold air wedges under and abruptly lifts the warmer air ahead of it, producing a steep frontal slope and often vigorous, narrow bands of weather.
68) Cold front: typical clouds/weather; steepness compared to warm front; PHAK Fig 12-26
Fast-moving cold fronts typically produce towering cumulus/cumulonimbus clouds, with sometimes severe but narrow, intense bands of weather (heavy showers, thunderstorms, gusty winds). The frontal surface is much steeper than a warm front's, so the associated weather is compressed into a much narrower band ahead of/along the front, rather than spread out for hundreds of miles.
69) Stationary front — how occurs; associated weather; duration
A stationary front occurs when two air masses meet but neither has enough force to displace the other, so the boundary stalls in place. Weather is similar to a slow-moving warm front (widespread clouds/precipitation) and can persist for days until the pattern changes.
70) Occluded front — how occurs; difference from stationary front; PHAK Fig 12-27
An occluded front occurs when a faster-moving cold front catches up to and overtakes a slower-moving warm front, lifting the warm air mass entirely off the surface. Unlike a stationary front (a stalled boundary between two distinct surface air masses), an occlusion combines characteristics of both a warm and cold front along a single evolving boundary, marking the mature/dissipating stage of a mid-latitude cyclone.
71) Cold occlusion vs. warm occlusion
In a cold occlusion, the overtaking cold air is colder than the air ahead of the warm front, so it slides under both air masses (similar structure to a cold front at the surface). In a warm occlusion, the overtaking air (behind the cold front) is not as cold as the air ahead of the warm front, so it rides up and over that colder air mass instead (similar structure to a warm front at the surface).
72) Three stages of a thunderstorm; how high can they get; hazards; safe distance
Cumulus stage (updrafts building, cloud growth), Mature stage (updrafts and downdrafts coexist, heaviest precipitation/hail/lightning/turbulence, gust front forms), Dissipating stage (downdrafts dominate, storm weakens/rains out). Tops can reach 40,000-60,000+ ft (occasionally higher for severe storms). Hazards: severe turbulence, hail, lightning, icing, heavy rain, microbursts, low-level wind shear, and tornadoes. Pilots should avoid thunderstorm cells by at least 20 NM (AIM recommends avoiding by at least 20 miles, and severe cells by more).
73) Air mass thunderstorm vs. steady-state thunderstorm; where encountered
Air mass thunderstorms are typically isolated, less organized, shorter-lived storms driven by local surface heating (often afternoon convection); steady-state (severe) thunderstorms are longer-lived, more organized systems often associated with fronts, squall lines, or strong wind shear, capable of producing severe weather. Air mass storms are common on hot summer afternoons over land; steady-state storms are common along frontal boundaries and in squall lines.
74) Where to find "roll" clouds; what is the "gust front"?
Roll clouds form along the leading edge of the thunderstorm's outflow, near the base of the storm ahead of the main precipitation area. The gust front is the leading edge of cool, gusty outflow air spreading out from the storm's downdraft, often causing a sudden wind shift and turbulence well ahead of the visible storm.
75) Which direction does the anvil point?
The anvil typically points in the direction the storm (and upper-level winds) is moving/spreading — generally downwind, in the direction of the prevailing upper-level winds.
76) Is it safe to fly under the anvil, even 20 miles from the storm core?
No — hail, lightning, and turbulence can extend well out from under the anvil, sometimes tens of miles from the visible storm core, so flying under an anvil is hazardous even at significant distances.
77) What are embedded thunderstorms; safe to fly under if unseen?
Embedded thunderstorms are cells hidden within a larger area of clouds (e.g., within a stratiform deck), not visually distinguishable from the surrounding clouds. No, it is not safe to fly under/through them if they can't be seen and avoided — radar or datalink weather (with appropriate caution about display latency) is needed to identify and avoid them.
78) What is a "squall line"; how long can they be?
A squall line is a narrow band of active, often severe thunderstorms, typically forming ahead of a fast-moving cold front; they can extend for hundreds of miles.
79) Where do tornadoes originate?
Most commonly from severe, rotating supercell thunderstorms (associated with strong wind shear and instability), though weaker tornadoes/landspouts can also form from other convective storms.
80) How is hail formed?
Strong thunderstorm updrafts carry ice/water particles repeatedly up through supercooled cloud layers, where additional layers of ice accrete on each pass, until the particle becomes too heavy for the updraft to support and falls as hail.
Extra Credit
1) Types of lifting action that promote thunderstorms; two sources
Convective lifting (surface heating) and mechanical/frontal lifting (air forced up along a frontal boundary or terrain); also convergence of surface winds can force air upward.
2) Why is moist air less stable than dry air?
Water vapor (molecular weight ~18) is lighter than the nitrogen/oxygen (molecular weight ~28/32) it displaces in the air mixture, making moist air less dense than dry air at the same temperature/pressure — this lower density promotes buoyant rising and thus greater instability.
3) Why is the moist adiabatic lapse rate lower than the dry rate?
As moist, rising air cools and reaches saturation, condensation releases latent heat into the parcel, partially offsetting the cooling from expansion — so the moist (saturated) adiabatic lapse rate (~1.1-2.8°C/1,000 ft, averaging ~1.5°C) is lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate (~3°C/1,000 ft, i.e. 5.4°F/1,000ft).
4) Moist parcel rising within dry air — density comparison; temperature trend as it rises and condenses
The moist parcel is initially less dense (warmer/more buoyant) than the surrounding dry air. As it rises and moisture condenses, released latent heat keeps the parcel cooling more slowly than the surrounding (dry-lapse-rate) air, so the parcel stays progressively warmer (and thus more buoyant/less dense) than its surroundings, continuing to accelerate upward — this positive feedback fuels vigorous convective growth.
5) Rapidly rising/rain-dumping updraft alongside a descending downdraft — what do the two shafts of air produce? (Mature Stage, Fig 12-28)
The strong shear and friction between the adjacent up- and downdrafts generate severe turbulence and significant static electricity buildup (charge separation), producing intense lightning activity — essentially "static electricity on steroids and severe turbulence," characteristic of the mature stage of a thunderstorm.
6) Gulf of Mexico warm front meets Continental Polar cold front over the Midwest — predicted weather?
A strong clash of very different air masses (warm, moist Maritime Tropical vs. cold, dry Continental Polar) typically produces a well-defined, potentially violent frontal system with widespread precipitation, strong instability, and a significant risk of severe thunderstorms, damaging winds, hail, and tornadoes — a classic Midwest severe weather setup.
Quiz 11 — Aviation Weather Services
Reference: PHAK Chapter 13; FAA-H-8083-28A; AIM 7-1
1) Where does most aviation weather info come from?
The National Weather Service (NWS)/NOAA, via the Aviation Weather Center (AWC), which produces and distributes most FAA aviation weather products.
2) What is NOAA and what do they do?
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration — a federal agency (parent of the National Weather Service) responsible for weather forecasting, monitoring, and related scientific/environmental services, including aviation weather products.
3) What is the Aviation Weather Center; products; access
The AWC (a branch of the NWS) produces aviation-specific weather products — METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, prog charts, icing/turbulence forecasts, etc. Accessed via aviationweather.gov.
4) What is Leidos Flight Service; how accessed?
Leidos Flight Service (contracted by the FAA) provides pilot weather briefings, flight plan filing, and NOTAM services. Accessed via 1800wxbrief.com or by phone at 1-800-WX-BRIEF (1-800-992-7433).
5) No internet — how to get a briefing; phone number?
Call Flight Service at 1-800-WX-BRIEF (1-800-992-7433).
6) Three commercial weather apps/sites
ForeFlight, Garmin Pilot, and FltPlan.com — all provide weather briefings and flight planning via web or mobile apps.
7) Three types of FSS briefings and content
Standard briefing: full, comprehensive briefing (weather synopsis, current conditions, forecasts, winds aloft, NOTAMs, TFRs) recommended before any flight not previously briefed. Abbreviated briefing: an update to a previous briefing or to get a specific item. Outlook briefing: general weather trend information for a flight more than 6 hours away, to help plan.
8) Describe FIS-B and XM Weather; how info gets to the cockpit
FIS-B (Flight Information Service-Broadcast) is a free, broadcast datalink weather service delivered over the ADS-B network (978 MHz UAT) providing METARs, TAFs, radar, AIRMETs/SIGMETs, TFRs, etc. to compatible receivers. XM (SiriusXM) Weather is a subscription satellite datalink weather service delivering similar products via satellite signal to a compatible receiver, generally with wider coverage/higher update rates than FIS-B but at a cost.
9) What is a METAR? A SPECI?
METAR is a routine, scheduled surface aviation weather report. A SPECI is a special (unscheduled) report issued when significant weather changes occur between routine METARs.
10) How often are METARs reported; geographic coverage
Typically hourly (with SPECIs as needed for significant changes); each METAR represents conditions at that specific reporting station/airport only (a point observation, not a wide area).
11) "Z" in the date/time stamp; conversion to local
"Z" (Zulu) denotes Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). Convert to local time by applying the local time zone offset (and daylight saving time offset if applicable) for the airport/observer's location.
12) "AUTO" meaning
The report was generated by a fully automated station with no human augmentation/observer input.
13) Decode wind: 31015G22KT; magnetic or true?
Wind from 310° at 15 knots, gusting to 22 knots. METAR winds are reported in degrees magnetic (unlike winds aloft forecasts, which are in true).
14) Decode wind "VRB"
Variable wind direction (typically reported when wind speed is 6 knots or less, or direction is highly variable).
15) Decode visibility: 5SM, 3/4SM, R12/2400FT
5SM = 5 statute miles visibility. 3/4SM = ¾ statute mile visibility. R12/2400FT = Runway Visual Range (RVR) for runway 12 is 2,400 feet.
16) Present weather codes: RA SN DZ GR BR FG HZ FU SH TS FZRN FZFG BLSN BLDU VCLTG VCSH
RA=rain, SN=snow, DZ=drizzle, GR=hail, BR=mist, FG=fog, HZ=haze, FU=smoke, SH=showers, TS=thunderstorm, FZRN=freezing rain (note: typically coded FZRA), FZFG=freezing fog, BLSN=blowing snow, BLDU=blowing dust, VCLTG=lightning in the vicinity, VCSH=showers in the vicinity.
17) +SN +RA +TSRA vs. SN RA TS vs. -SN -RA
A "+" prefix indicates heavy intensity; no prefix indicates moderate intensity; a "-" prefix indicates light intensity, for the given weather phenomenon (snow, rain, thunderstorm with rain, etc.).
18) Sky condition codes: SKC CLR FEW004 SCT023 BKN100 OVC250 VV001 FEW012 SCT046 VV002
SKC = sky clear (human-observed). CLR = clear below 12,000 ft (automated station, no clouds detected). FEW004 = few clouds at 400 ft. SCT023 = scattered clouds at 2,300 ft. BKN100 = broken clouds at 10,000 ft. OVC250 = overcast at 25,000 ft. VV001 = vertical visibility (indefinite ceiling/obscuration) 100 ft. FEW012 = few clouds at 1,200 ft. SCT046 = scattered at 4,600 ft. VV002 = vertical visibility 200 ft.
19) Difference between CLR and SKC
CLR is used by automated (AWOS/ASOS) stations meaning no clouds detected below 12,000 ft; SKC ("sky clear") is used when a human observer confirms no clouds at any altitude.
20) Sky cover amounts: SKC/CLR, FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC
SKC/CLR = 0/8 coverage. FEW = 1/8 to 2/8. SCT = 3/8 to 4/8. BKN = 5/8 to 7/8. OVC = 8/8 (full coverage).
21) What cloud types are CB and TCU?
CB = Cumulonimbus (thunderstorm cloud). TCU = Towering Cumulus (strong vertical development, precursor to cumulonimbus).
22) Decode Temp/Dewpoint: 18/16, 04/M02; units?
18/16 = temperature 18°C, dew point 16°C. 04/M02 = temperature 4°C, dew point -2°C ("M" denotes minus/below zero). Always reported in Celsius.
23) How is Altimeter reported in a METAR?
As "A" followed by four digits representing inches of mercury to the hundredth (e.g., A2992 = 29.92" Hg).
24) Decode the three sample METARs (KOKC, KRFD, KORD)
KOKC 011955Z AUTO 22015G25KT 3/4SM +TSRA BR OVC010CB 18/16 A2992 RMK AO2 GR 1 3/4 TS OHD MOV E SLP132 — Automated report for Oklahoma City, issued the 1st at 1955Z; wind 220° at 15 kt gusting 25 kt; visibility ¾ SM; heavy thunderstorm with rain, mist; overcast ceiling at 1,000 ft, cumulonimbus; temp 18°C/dew point 16°C; altimeter 29.92; remarks: automated station with precipitation sensor (AO2), hail 1¾ inches, thunderstorm overhead moving east, sea-level pressure 1013.2 hPa.
KRFD 021252Z AUTO 31012G20KT 10SM OVC010CB 18/16 A2992 RMK AO2 PK WND 29032/15 WSHFT 30 FROPA LTG DSNT W SLP132 — Rockford, 2nd at 1252Z; wind 310° at 12 kt gusting 20 kt; visibility 10 SM; overcast at 1,000 ft, CB; temp/dew point 18/16; altimeter 29.92; remarks: peak wind 290° at 32 kt at :15 past the hour, wind shift at :30, frontal passage, lightning distant to the west, SLP 1013.2.
KORD 112355Z AUTO VRB03KT R10L/1800FT BR VCFG FZDZ VV300 M02/M01 A2983 RMK A02 — Chicago O'Hare, 11th at 2355Z; wind variable at 3 kt; RVR runway 10L 1,800 ft; mist, fog in the vicinity, freezing drizzle; vertical visibility (indefinite ceiling) 30,000 ft (note: VV300 likely a typo for VV003/300 ft in original context — read as printed on the actual report); temp -2°C/dew point -1°C; altimeter 29.83; remark AO2 (automated with precipitation discriminator).
KRFD 021252Z AUTO 31012G20KT 10SM OVC010CB 18/16 A2992 RMK AO2 PK WND 29032/15 WSHFT 30 FROPA LTG DSNT W SLP132 — Rockford, 2nd at 1252Z; wind 310° at 12 kt gusting 20 kt; visibility 10 SM; overcast at 1,000 ft, CB; temp/dew point 18/16; altimeter 29.92; remarks: peak wind 290° at 32 kt at :15 past the hour, wind shift at :30, frontal passage, lightning distant to the west, SLP 1013.2.
KORD 112355Z AUTO VRB03KT R10L/1800FT BR VCFG FZDZ VV300 M02/M01 A2983 RMK A02 — Chicago O'Hare, 11th at 2355Z; wind variable at 3 kt; RVR runway 10L 1,800 ft; mist, fog in the vicinity, freezing drizzle; vertical visibility (indefinite ceiling) 30,000 ft (note: VV300 likely a typo for VV003/300 ft in original context — read as printed on the actual report); temp -2°C/dew point -1°C; altimeter 29.83; remark AO2 (automated with precipitation discriminator).
25) What is a PIREP; when should a pilot make one; who to report to?
A PIREP (pilot report) is an in-flight weather observation reported by a pilot (turbulence, icing, cloud tops/bases, visibility, etc.). Pilots should file PIREPs whenever encountering hazardous or significant/unforecast conditions (icing, turbulence, wind shear, unusual weather). Report to Flight Service (1-800-WX-BRIEF), ATC/Center, or via datalink apps like ForeFlight.
26) Decode the two sample PIREPs
UA/OV JVL120 15/TM2030/FL040/TP C172/SK 020 OVC/WX RA/TA 10/WV 30012KT/TB LGT — Routine PIREP, 15 NM from JVL VOR on the 120° radial, at 2030Z, at 4,000 ft, in a Cessna 172, sky broken/overcast base at 2,000 ft, weather rain, temperature 10°C, wind 300° at 12 kt, light turbulence.
UUA/OV BUU/TM1532/FL090/TP PA28/SK CLR/TB MOD-SVR/RM LLWS -15KT SFC-030 DURC — Urgent PIREP, over BUU VOR, at 1532Z, at 9,000 ft, in a PA28, sky clear, moderate-to-severe turbulence, remarks: low-level wind shear of 15 knots loss from the surface to 3,000 ft, during climb.
UUA/OV BUU/TM1532/FL090/TP PA28/SK CLR/TB MOD-SVR/RM LLWS -15KT SFC-030 DURC — Urgent PIREP, over BUU VOR, at 1532Z, at 9,000 ft, in a PA28, sky clear, moderate-to-severe turbulence, remarks: low-level wind shear of 15 knots loss from the surface to 3,000 ft, during climb.
27) What is a TAF; geographic coverage; where found
A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast is a scheduled forecast of expected weather at an airport (typically within a 5 SM radius of the airport). Found via aviationweather.gov, Flight Service, or aviation weather/EFB apps.
28) How long valid; how often updated
Typically valid for 24 or 30 hours (major airports often issue 30-hour TAFs); issued/updated four times daily (typically around 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z), with amendments as needed.
29) Decode valid date/time: 0812/0912
Valid from the 8th day at 1200Z through the 9th day at 1200Z.
30) P6SM; TEMPO; PROB30 meanings
P6SM = visibility greater than 6 statute miles. TEMPO = temporary fluctuations expected for less than an hour at a time, occurring in less than half the period. PROB30 = a 30% probability of the specified conditions occurring.
31) WS020/07040KT meaning
Non-convective low-level wind shear at 2,000 ft, wind from 070° at 40 knots at that shear layer.
32) Decode sample TAFs (KOKC, KRFD, KSTL)
Each TAF describes a forecast sequence of wind, visibility, weather, and sky condition over the valid period, with FM (from), BECMG (becoming — gradual change), TEMPO (temporary), and PROB (probability) groups marking changes. For example, KOKC's TAF forecasts wind 140° at 8 kt, visibility 5SM in mist, ceiling 3,000 broken, with a temporary period of 1½SM mist between 1300-1600Z; becoming (FM1600) wind 160° at 10 kt, visibility better than 6SM, sky clear; then a BECMG period to gusty 20-kt SW winds, 4SM in rain showers with an 2,000 ft overcast, a 40% chance of 2SM thunderstorms with rain and an 800 ft overcast CB between 0000-0600Z, finally becoming (0600-0800Z) wind 210° at 15 kt, vis better than 6SM, no significant weather, scattered at 4,000 ft. Work through each of the three sample TAFs line by line with your instructor using this FM/BECMG/TEMPO/PROB decoding method.
33) What are AIRMETs; concern to what type of aircraft?
AIRMETs (Airmen's Meteorological Information) advise of weather that may be hazardous, particularly to light aircraft, single-engine aircraft, and aircraft with limited flight instrumentation/equipment (VFR pilots) — significant but generally less severe than SIGMET-level hazards.
34) AIRMET Zulu, Tango, Sierra content; where found
Zulu: icing and freezing levels. Tango: turbulence, strong surface winds, and low-level wind shear. Sierra: IFR conditions (ceiling/visibility) and extensive mountain obscuration. Found on aviationweather.gov (Graphical AIRMET/G-AIRMET) or via Flight Service/EFB apps.
35) What are SIGMETs; hazardous to which aircraft?
SIGMETs (Significant Meteorological Information) warn of weather hazardous to all aircraft — severe turbulence, severe icing, dust/sandstorms reducing visibility below 3 miles, and volcanic ash.
36) Convective SIGMETs — what winds, hail size, coverage trigger issuance; tornadoes?
Convective SIGMETs are issued for: surface winds ≥50 knots, hail ≥¾ inch diameter at the surface, embedded/severe/widespread thunderstorms, a line of thunderstorms, or thunderstorms affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles. Any reported tornado, or a line of severe thunderstorms, also warrants issuance.
37) Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) — magnetic or true; decode 731960 and 9900
Winds Aloft Forecasts are reported in degrees TRUE (not magnetic) and knots. 731960 = wind from 230° true at 119 knots (the first two digits + 50 signal >100 kt: 73→23+50=73, so direction=230°, speed=100+19=119 kt), temperature -60°C. 9900 = wind calm/light and variable (winds light and variable, typically shown as 9900 meaning less than 5 knots, direction and speed omitted/coded as calm).
38) Example of Winds/Temps Aloft on AWC or a weather app
Available at aviationweather.gov (Turbulence/Winds & Temps Aloft products) or in ForeFlight/Garmin Pilot under winds aloft.
39) How frequently are Surface Analysis Charts produced; find an example
Typically produced/updated every 3 hours (issued 8 times daily); available on aviationweather.gov under Products > Surface Analysis.
40) How are High/Low pressure, cold/warm fronts depicted?
Low pressure areas are marked with a red "L"; High pressure with a blue "H." Cold fronts: blue line with triangles pointing in the direction of movement. Warm fronts: red line with semicircles pointing in the direction of movement.
41) How are a Trough and Ridge depicted?
A trough (elongated area of low pressure) is depicted with a dashed line; a ridge (elongated area of high pressure) is depicted similarly as an elongated area of higher pressure contours, without frontal symbols.
42) How are occluded and stationary fronts depicted?
Occluded front: purple line with alternating triangles and semicircles pointing in the direction of movement. Stationary front: alternating red semicircles and blue triangles pointing in opposite directions (indicating the boundary is not moving).
43) What are Low-Level Significant Prog Charts; how often published; altitude coverage?
Prognostic (Prog) charts depict forecast significant weather (IFR/MVFR areas, turbulence, freezing levels) typically up to FL240 (24,000 ft), published/updated multiple times per day (e.g., every 6 hours) with forecasts for various valid times out to 24-48 hours.
44) How do Prog Charts depict "Chance of Rain," "Likely Rain," etc.; intensity or probability?
These depictions on prognostic charts represent probability/coverage of precipitation occurring, not necessarily its intensity — "chance" vs. "likely" reflects likelihood, while intensity (light/moderate/heavy) may be separately indicated by symbols where applicable.
45) Difference between "issued time" and "valid time"
Issued time is when the forecast/product was actually produced/transmitted; valid time is the specific time (or period) the forecast information applies to/describes.
46) What is NEXRAD; time lapse to cockpit display; safe to penetrate fast-moving severe weather with it; utility?
NEXRAD (Next-Generation Radar) is the national network of Doppler weather radar stations providing precipitation/storm imagery. Datalink weather (XM or FIS-B) displayed in the cockpit can be several minutes old (commonly cited as up to 5-15+ minutes of latency by the time it's processed and displayed). It should NOT be used to penetrate or navigate tactically around fast-moving (40+ mph) severe weather, since the displayed picture may be significantly out of date by the time it's viewed. Its utility is strategic (big-picture) route planning and avoidance well in advance, not tactical, real-time storm penetration/threading.
47) What is FIS-B; how delivered; what about XM?
FIS-B is a free FAA broadcast datalink weather service delivered over the 978 MHz UAT ADS-B frequency to compatible ADS-B In receivers, providing weather products like METARs, TAFs, NEXRAD, AIRMETs/SIGMETs, TFRs, and PIREPs. XM Weather is a subscription-based satellite datalink service (SiriusXM) delivering similar (often more extensive/higher-frequency) weather data via satellite signal to a compatible receiver.
Aviation Weather Center walkthrough (Observations, GFA, Products)
Practice navigating aviationweather.gov: under "Weather → Observations," use the Legend (and sub-legends) to decode station model symbols, toggle Active Layers (Flight Category, METAR, SIGMET, G-AIRMET, etc.), and hover over a station for its local METAR; interpret Flight Categories (VFR ≥3,000 ft ceiling and ≥5 SM visibility, MVFR 1,000-3,000 ft / 3-5 SM, IFR 500-<1,000 ft / 1-<3 SM, LIFR <500 ft / <1 SM). Under "Weather → GFA," explore Ceiling & Visibility, Clouds, Precipitation, Thunderstorms, Temperature, Winds, Turbulence layers. Under "Products," explore SIGMET, G-AIRMET, Center Weather Advisories, Prog Charts, TAF map, Forecast Discussions, METAR/TAF decoding tools, PIREP data, and Winds/Temps Aloft data — best used together with an EFB (ForeFlight, Garmin Pilot) or a full Flight Service/1-800-WX-BRIEF briefing before every cross-country flight, always supplemented by checking a radar image separately for near-real-time precipitation location.
Quiz 12 — Airport Operations
Reference: PHAK Chapter 14; AIM 2, 4-1-9, 4-3-3; AC 90-66; Airplane Flying Handbook Ch. 8
1) At a towered airport, when may a pilot deviate from ATC instruction; what communication follows?
A pilot may deviate from an ATC instruction to the extent necessary to meet an emergency, or if an alternate course of action is necessary for safety (e.g., avoiding a hazard). ATC must be notified of the deviation as soon as possible.
2) What does CTAF stand for; used for?
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency — the designated frequency used at non-towered airports (or towered airports outside tower operating hours) for pilots to self-announce position/intentions and coordinate with other traffic.
3) What does UNICOM stand for; can it be the same as CTAF?
Universal Communications — an air-to-ground frequency at non-towered airports often operated by an FBO, used for advisory services (e.g., wind, active runway). Yes, UNICOM can be, and often is, the same frequency designated as the CTAF at a given non-towered airport.
4) MULTICOM frequency; when used?
122.9 MHz — used at airports without a designated CTAF/UNICOM (e.g., very small or unattended strips, or for glider/balloon/agricultural operations) for self-announcing position and intentions.
5) When are radio calls recommended for each phase of departure/arrival at a non-towered airport?
Recommended calls: before taxiing, before taxiing onto the runway for departure, departing the pattern; then, 10 miles out inbound, entering downwind, base, final, and clear of the runway after landing (AIM 4-1-9).
6) Recommended traffic pattern entry procedure/altitude
Enter at a 45° angle to the downwind leg, at pattern altitude (commonly 1,000 ft AGL for light single-engine aircraft, per AIM 4-3-3), abeam the midpoint of the runway.
7) Two alternate traffic pattern entries
Crossing midfield at pattern altitude to join the 45° downwind entry, or entering on a straight-in final (with appropriate caution/communication) — AIM 4-3-3/PHAK 14-3 also discuss overhead/teardrop entries for descending traffic.
8) "Flying over airport at 2500 for the right teardrop into left downwind runway 24"
a. A VFR teardrop procedure is a descending entry where the pilot crosses over midfield at a higher altitude, flies out beyond the pattern on the departure side, then turns back (teardrop shape) descending to arrive at pattern altitude on the appropriate 45° entry to downwind. b. This phraseology broadly follows AIM 4-1-9's recommendation of announcing position/intentions clearly. c. The aircraft should descend to pattern altitude before actually entering the pattern (well clear of the runway environment, typically on the non-traffic/departure side away from the active pattern). d. Then enter via the standard 45° to downwind at pattern altitude.
9) Where to find airport comm frequencies, services, closed runways
The Chart Supplement (formerly Airport/Facility Directory), NOTAMs, and sectional charts.
10) What is ATIS; update frequency; where found; notification requirement
ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is a recorded, continuously broadcast advisory of current weather/airport conditions at towered airports; updated at least hourly (or upon significant change), with a new phonetic letter each update. Pilots must inform ATC/tower that they have the current ATIS information (by letter) on initial contact.
11) What info does the Chart Supplement contain; publication frequency?
Detailed airport data — runways, lighting, communications frequencies, services (fuel, maintenance), hours of operation, navaids, remarks, and airspace information. Published on a 56-day revision cycle.
12) Chart Supplement — Alton/St. Louis Airport review
This requires pulling the actual current Chart Supplement (CS EC) entry for Alton/St. Louis Regional (identifier ALN) from the FAA's digital Chart Supplement to answer specifics (identifier, distance/direction from Alton, time zone/DST, field elevation, beacon presence, glide path lighting by runway, runway dimensions, tower/field hours, after-hours procedures, lighting activation, fuel/services phone numbers, "S4" service code meaning, self-serve fuel availability, AWOS phone number, the "R" symbol meaning restricted/receive-only frequency, VORTAC name/distance/unusable radials, and airport class) — work through this hands-on using the live FAA digital Chart Supplement, since these specific facility details change periodically and must be verified from the current publication.
13) Two ways to get NOTAMs (per Chart Supplement pg. 16)
Via a Flight Service Station briefing (1-800-WX-BRIEF) or online via the FAA NOTAM Search system (notams.aim.faa.gov) or an EFB/flight planning app.
14) Dixon Municipal (C73) — self-serve fuel, hours, maintenance, courtesy car
Check the current Chart Supplement entry for C73 for these specific, regularly-updated facility details; contacting the airport manager directly (phone number listed in the Chart Supplement) is a reliable way to confirm courtesy car availability.
15) Decatur Airport (KDEC) declared distances: TORA, TODA, LDA
TORA (Takeoff Run Available) = runway length available for takeoff ground roll. TODA (Takeoff Distance Available) = TORA plus any clearway. LDA (Landing Distance Available) = runway length available and suitable for landing ground roll — check KDEC's current Chart Supplement for the specific published figures per runway.
16) Canton Airport (KCTC) traffic pattern altitude
Check the current Chart Supplement entry for KCTC's published TPA (varies by airport/aircraft category).
17) KFEP Freeport, IL — TPA for piston aircraft and ultralights
Check the current Chart Supplement entry for KFEP's published TPA for each category (piston vs. ultralight, which typically use a lower/different pattern altitude).
18) KCMI LAHSO landing Runway 04, holding short 14L-32R — available landing distance
Refer to the current KCMI airport diagram/Chart Supplement for the published LAHSO available landing distance (ALD) for Runway 04 holding short of 14L-32R.
19) Displaced vs relocated threshold — differences; usable portions
A displaced threshold moves the landing threshold farther down the runway (usually for obstacle clearance), but the paved area before it can still be used for takeoff ground roll, taxiing, and landing rollout (after touching down beyond the threshold) — just not for landing touchdown before the threshold. A relocated threshold is a temporary (often construction-related) threshold shift where the area before the new threshold typically cannot be used for landing OR taxi/takeoff roll beyond specific NOTAM restrictions — it's usually closed to those operations (check the specific NOTAM).
20) Displaced threshold / relocated threshold / blast pad (diagram)
Image 1 (white arrows and centerline before threshold bars) = displaced threshold. Image 2 (yellow chevrons across full width with no arrows, closed area) = relocated threshold. Image 3 (yellow chevron/blast pad markings) = blast pad/stopway (overrun area, not usable for taxi/takeoff/landing, only emergency overrun).
21) Identify signs/markings (a-l)
These correspond to standard FAA taxiway/runway signage: red signs with white lettering are location/holding position signs (e.g., ILS critical area, runway holding position); black signs with yellow lettering are taxiway location signs; yellow signs with black lettering are direction signs; yellow markings with black borders on pavement denote taxiway holding position/ILS critical area markings. Work through each specific item (a-l) using the FAA's Airport Signs and Markings reference chart (PHAK Ch. 14, Figures 14-25 through 14-30) alongside the diagram provided in your document.
22) Diagram: identify labeled items (a-f)
Match each described item (LAHSO, enhanced taxiway markings, "you are on Alpha," "Alpha 2 to your right," hold short of 18-36) to its corresponding numbered marking/sign in the diagram using the FAA airport signage reference — this is a visual matching exercise best worked through with the actual diagram and your instructor.
23) Clearance needed to cross yellow lines shown (photo); location of markings
These are runway holding position markings (two solid + two dashed yellow lines) at a runway/taxiway intersection. Crossing in the direction shown (from the dashed-line side toward the solid-line side, i.e., entering the runway) requires an ATC clearance at a towered airport (or appropriate caution/announcement at a non-towered field); the double-solid-line side faces the runway.
24) Can you cross these lines (runway designation markings, e.g., 32R-14L) without clearance?
These red-background runway/taxiway location signs (showing you are approaching a specific runway, e.g., 32R-14L) mark a runway holding position; crossing onto the runway itself requires ATC clearance at a towered airport (or appropriate procedures at a non-towered field) — the sign/marking itself is informational, but crossing the associated holding position line onto the runway requires clearance.
25) Runway with X markings — can you land? How could you know beforehand?
No — a yellow "X" (or lighted X) on a runway means the runway is closed and unusable for landing or takeoff. You could know beforehand by checking NOTAMs and the current Chart Supplement/airport diagram before departing.
26) Identify runway markings (i-vii)
i. Touchdown zone markings: paired rectangular bars at intervals from the threshold. ii. Aiming point markings: two wide rectangular bars a set distance down the runway. iii. Displaced threshold: arrows leading to a threshold bar. iv. Runway number: large numerals near the threshold indicating magnetic heading (rounded to nearest 10°). v. Runway threshold: the line marking the beginning of the usable landing surface. vi. Blast pad/overrun: chevron markings before the actual runway surface. vii. Runway centerline: dashed white line down the runway's center.
27) How far from threshold is the aiming point located?
Approximately 1,000 feet from the threshold.
28) Centerline stripe length and gap on a standard runway
Stripes are typically 120 feet long with 80-foot gaps (200-foot total repeat interval) on runways at least 5,000 ft; shorter runways may use shorter stripe/gap dimensions.
29) Can a blast pad be used for normal operations?
No — a blast pad/stopway is not intended for normal taxi, takeoff, or landing use; it's designed to reduce erosion from prop/jet blast and provide an emergency overrun area only.
30) When must you hold short of an ILS critical area?
When the ILS is in use (during low-visibility/instrument approach operations) and ATC instructs you to hold short, or when instructed by signage/markings in those conditions — necessary to avoid signal interference with aircraft flying the approach.
31) When can you cross from a non-movement (ramp) area to a movement (taxiway) area?
At a towered airport, only after obtaining explicit clearance/instruction from ground control; at a non-towered airport, use caution and standard self-announcing procedures (no clearance required, but coordinate via CTAF).
32) Two quick white flashes alternating with green flash — airport type; can you land?
This is the beacon pattern for a military airport (two quick white flashes alternating with one green flash). Civilian aircraft may land at a military field only with prior permission/in an emergency — it's not open for routine civilian use without coordination.
33) Civilian airport beacon flash type; helipad?
Civilian land airport: alternating white and green flashes. Heliport: alternating white, green, and yellow flashes (a three-color sequence).
34) Compare/contrast VASI and PAPI
VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator) uses two or three bar light units on the side of the runway showing red/white combinations (e.g., "red over white, you're all right" for on-glidepath, "white over white, you're too high," "red over red, you're too low"). PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator) uses a single row of typically 4 light units, all in one row, where the number of red vs. white lights indicates position relative to the glidepath (e.g., 2 red/2 white = on glidepath). Both provide visual glide path guidance; PAPI is more common on newer/modern installations and is generally considered more precise/easier to interpret with a single reference row.
35) Effect of VASI/PAPI presence on night landing decision at unfamiliar airport
A runway with a working VASI/PAPI provides a reliable, independent glide path reference that helps counter visual illusions (black-hole approach, featureless terrain, sloped runway illusions) common at night, making it a safer/preferred choice over a similar runway lacking any glide path guidance system, especially at an unfamiliar field.
36) What are runway "Guard" lights and what are they used for?
Runway guard lights are flashing yellow lights (either in-pavement or elevated signs) located at taxiway/runway intersections to enhance the pilot's awareness of an approaching runway holding position, helping prevent runway incursions.
37) Identify lighting types (i-ix) using the figure
Match: runway end lighting (departure) — red lights at the far/departure end; runway threshold lighting (approach) — green lights at the landing threshold; REIL — synchronized flashing white lights flanking the threshold; airport beacon — rotating light visible in the distance; taxiway edge lights — blue lights; runway edge lights — white lights (yellow near the far end on instrument runways); PAPI — light array beside the runway showing red/white; runway guard lights — flashing yellow lights at the hold line; MALSR — sequenced flashing/strobe approach lighting system with red bar aligned with runway centerline before the threshold. Match each specific letter in the figure using this key with your instructor.
38) Runway remaining lighting: 3000/2000/1000 ft indications
On standard in-pavement runway centerline lighting near the far end, white lights become alternating red/white at 3,000 ft remaining, then all red at 1,000 ft remaining (2,000 ft falls within the alternating red/white zone) — used to gauge remaining runway distance in low-visibility operations.
39) Identify lighting in picture (taxiway edge, runway edge, taxiway centerline)
Taxiway edge lighting = blue lights along taxiway edges; runway edge lighting = white lights along runway edges; taxiway centerline lighting = green lights embedded along the taxiway centerline.
40) Which is MALSR and which is ALSF approach lighting system?
MALSR (Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway alignment indicator lights) has sequenced flashing strobes along a shorter light bar array; ALSF is a longer, higher-intensity approach lighting system (typically for CAT II/III precision approaches) with a more extensive light bar/sequenced flasher array extending farther from the runway threshold. Compare the two images' light bar length/configuration to distinguish which is the shorter MALSR vs. the longer, more elaborate ALSF.
41) Flashing lights alternating (photo) — what are they and what do they mean?
These appear to be runway guard lights (elevated, alternating flashing yellow lights) at a taxiway/runway hold position, warning pilots they are approaching a runway holding position and should not cross without clearance.
42) Meaning of "HS 1" on airport diagram
"HS 1" denotes Hot Spot 1 — a location on the airport diagram identified by the FAA as having a history or increased risk of runway incursions or confusion, warranting extra pilot vigilance.
43) How to determine if pilot-controlled lighting exists; how to activate high/medium/low intensity
Check the Chart Supplement for the airport entry noting pilot-controlled lighting (PCL) and its CTAF frequency. Activate by keying the mic on the specified frequency: typically 7 clicks in 5 seconds for highest intensity, 5 clicks for medium, 3 clicks for lowest (specific counts/timing can vary — verify per the Chart Supplement entry for that airport).
44) Three types of wind direction indicators and how they present direction
Wind sock (or tetrahedron) — points/streams in the direction the wind is blowing TOWARD the observer (i.e., the large end faces into the wind, so it points downwind); wind tee — the tail of the "T" points into the wind (indicating landing direction, similar to a weathervane); tetrahedron — the pointed/narrow end points into the wind, indicating landing direction.
45) Standard TPA if not otherwise published; when to descend below TPA; where to turn base
1,000 ft AGL is the standard recommended TPA for light single-engine aircraft (larger/faster aircraft may use 1,500 ft) unless otherwise published in the Chart Supplement. Descend below TPA only once established in the traffic pattern, generally on the base-to-final turn area, not before. Turn base approximately 45° past the runway threshold (abeam positioning) or per local procedures, adjusted for wind/traffic.
46) Departure/go-around — when to turn crosswind; altitude if staying in pattern
Begin the turn to crosswind after reaching at least 300 ft above the ground (some procedures specify beyond the departure end of the runway as well) if remaining in the pattern.
47) Recommended path to exit the traffic pattern on departure/go-around
Continue straight out, or exit with a 45° turn in the direction of the pattern (departing on the crosswind or downwind leg heading) after reaching pattern altitude, to remain clear of other arriving/departing traffic.
48) Lost comms at a Class D — clearance requirements before entering; light guns; weather minima; landing procedure; transponder
Remain clear of the Class D until you have determined the flow of traffic (observe the pattern) and, if possible, the current weather (need to meet basic VFR minima to enter). You should attempt to establish two-way communication; if unable, you may enter and land while watching for light gun signals rather than waiting outside the airspace indefinitely (though many pilots choose to overfly/observe first). Weather must meet basic VFR minima for that class of airspace. Squawk 7600 (lost communications code). Land only when the runway environment and pattern appear clear, following light signals if received. Class C and B (per 91.130(c)/91.131) have specific — generally more restrictive — lost-comm procedures; a VFR aircraft is generally not authorized routine access to Class B without a clearance, so lost-comm entry to Class B requires much greater caution and is not simply "watch for light guns."
49) Meanings of light gun signals in flight
Steady green = cleared to land. Flashing green = return for landing (expect clearance later). Steady red = give way/continue circling (yield right of way). Flashing red = airport unsafe, do not land. Alternating red/green = exercise extreme caution (general warning).
50) Meanings of the same light signals on the ground
Steady green = cleared for takeoff. Flashing green = cleared to taxi. Steady red = stop. Flashing red = taxi clear of the runway/landing area in use. Alternating red/green = exercise extreme caution. Flashing white = return to starting point on the airport.
51) Meaning of a 4-digit "Squawk" code; "Squawk VFR"; "Ident"
A 4-digit squawk code is a unique transponder identification code assigned by ATC to distinguish your aircraft on radar. "Squawk VFR" instructs you to set the transponder to code 1200. "Ident" instructs you to press the transponder's identification button, which highlights your aircraft's return on the controller's radar display.
52) What is ADS-B; how does it work; radar required?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast is a system where aircraft use GPS position data to automatically broadcast their position, altitude, velocity, and identification, allowing ATC (and other equipped aircraft) to track them without relying on ground-based radar; radar is not required for ADS-B surveillance.
53) Two ADS-B frequencies in the US
1090 MHz (Extended Squitter, 1090ES) and 978 MHz (UAT — Universal Access Transceiver, used below 18,000 ft).
54) How is wake turbulence created; when does it start/stop being produced?
Created whenever a wing is producing lift (see wingtip vortices, Quiz 3). It begins as soon as the aircraft's nosewheel lifts off (rotation) and continues until the nosewheel touches down on landing — critical for judging where to plan your own takeoff/landing rotation and touchdown relative to a preceding large aircraft's points.
55) Aircraft type producing strongest wake turbulence
Heavy, clean-configured, slow-flying aircraft (large, heavy jets in a clean/high-AOA configuration) produce the strongest wake turbulence.
56) Concern with wake turbulence en route at altitude?
Yes — wake turbulence can still be a hazard en route, particularly when crossing behind/below/in trail of another aircraft's flight path at similar or lower altitude; pilots should avoid flying directly behind and below another aircraft's path.
57) How wingtip vortices travel vertically/horizontally near the ground
Vortices sink at roughly 400-500 fpm initially, leveling off around 500-900 ft below the generating aircraft's flight path; near the ground, they tend to move outward/laterally from the runway centerline, and can rebound slightly.
58) How crosswind or quartering tailwind affects vortex persistence on the runway
A light crosswind can help move one vortex off the runway while keeping the other on it, or move both off; a light quartering tailwind can actually blow vortices from the upwind runway back onto/along the runway and keep them lingering there longer — a particularly hazardous wind condition.
59) Avoiding wake turbulence in the given scenarios (a-g)
General principle in all cases: stay above and upwind of the preceding/departing large aircraft's flight path, and land/rotate beyond its touchdown/rotation point. a. Departing same runway as landing Large/Heavy — plan to lift off prior to the heavy's touchdown point. b. Departing same runway as a departing Large/Heavy — allow spacing/rotate before its rotation point, stay above its climb path. c. Landing behind a large aircraft landing same runway — land beyond its touchdown point, stay above its approach path. d. Landing behind a large aircraft departing same runway — land prior to its rotation point if possible, or note wind drift of vortices from its climb path. e. Large aircraft crosses ahead, a couple miles/1,000 ft above — avoid flying through its wake path/note wind drift and remain clear of the area below/behind that crossing point for several minutes. f. Large aircraft does a low approach and goes around — treat this like a departure; expect vortices from where it applied power/climbed away. g. Large aircraft departing a close, upwind parallel runway — be aware vortices can drift across from the adjacent runway due to wind, and use caution/extra spacing.
60) Two examples of airborne pilot deviations; five ground pilot deviations
Airborne: entering controlled airspace without clearance, failing to comply with an ATC instruction/altitude assignment. Ground: crossing a runway hold line without clearance, taxiing onto an active runway without authorization, failure to hold short as instructed, taxiing into a closed taxiway/runway, and failing to follow assigned taxi routing/progressive taxi instructions.
61) 10 practices to prevent runway/taxiway incursions
(1) Review airport diagram before taxi; (2) brief taxi route/hot spots; (3) use a current airport diagram/chart; (4) write down and read back all taxi/hold-short instructions; (5) maintain situational awareness with heads up outside during taxi; (6) confirm assigned runway before crossing/entering; (7) use proper phraseology and confirm clearances; (8) come to a complete stop at hold lines if uncertain; (9) use exterior lighting (taxi/landing lights, strobes) to increase visibility during taxi; (10) if unsure of a clearance or position, ask ATC or request progressive taxi.
62) What is a "progressive taxi" and when might you request it?
A progressive taxi is step-by-step taxi guidance issued by ATC ground control, given when a pilot is unfamiliar with the airport layout or becomes uncertain/lost while taxiing.
63) How to respond if instructed to do something you don't understand or aren't comfortable with
Advise ATC immediately — request clarification, state "unable," or ask for progressive taxi/alternate instructions; never guess or comply with an instruction you don't fully understand.
64) How must you respond to a hold-short instruction?
You must read back all runway hold-short instructions in full, verbatim, including the specific runway.
65) What does "line up and wait" mean?
Taxi onto the departure runway and position the aircraft for takeoff, but hold in place — you are not yet cleared for takeoff and must wait for further clearance.
66) After landing at a towered airport, can you turn off at the first available taxiway without clearance? Exiting onto a crossing runway?
Generally yes, you may exit the landing runway at the first available taxiway without additional clearance (unless instructed otherwise) since taxiing clear of the runway is expected — but you must not cross a different (crossing) active runway without a specific ATC clearance/hold-short instruction.
67) How much of the aircraft must clear the holding position markings when exiting a runway?
The entire aircraft (all parts) must be completely clear of the runway holding position markings before it is considered clear of the runway.
Quiz 13 — Airspace
Reference: PHAK Chapter 15; 14 CFR 91.155, 91.157, 91.126-91.144
1) Location/vertical limits: Class A, B, C, D, E, G
Class A: 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600, throughout the contiguous U.S. Class B: surrounds the busiest airports, from the surface up to typically 10,000 ft MSL, in an inverted-wedding-cake shape unique to each location. Class C: surrounds airports with a control tower and radar approach control with a certain traffic level, typically a 5 NM surface radius up to 4,000 ft AGL with a 10 NM shelf up to 4,000 ft AGL, unique to each location. Class D: surrounds airports with an operating control tower (without Class B/C), typically a 4 NM radius from the surface up to about 2,500 ft AGL. Class E: controlled airspace not classified as A, B, C, or D — includes areas from the surface, 700 ft AGL, or 1,200 ft AGL up to (but not including) 18,000 ft MSL, and above FL600. Class G: uncontrolled airspace, generally from the surface up to the base of the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace.
2) Equipment, certification, communications, and clearance requirements per class
Class A: IFR flight only, instrument rating required, ATC clearance required, transponder w/Mode C and ADS-B Out required. Class B: private pilot certificate (or student pilot with specific endorsement/authorization), two-way radio and ATC clearance required, Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out required. Class C: two-way radio communication established before entry (no formal "clearance" needed, just contact), Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out required. Class D: two-way radio communication established before entry, no transponder required unless within Mode C veil. Class E: no specific pilot certificate requirement beyond normal, radio not required for VFR (unless within Class E surface area at a towered field), ADS-B Out required at/above 10,000 ft MSL (excluding certain low-altitude exceptions) and in the Mode C veil. Class G: no clearance, communication, or specific transponder/ADS-B requirement for VFR (ADS-B may still apply based on altitude/location rules).
3) Basic VFR weather minima in each class
a. Class B: clear of clouds, 3 SM visibility. b. Class C, D, E during day (and G at night): 3 SM visibility; 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds. c. Above 10,000 ft MSL (excluding Class A): 5 SM visibility; 1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 1 SM horizontal from clouds. d. Class G below 1,200 ft AGL, day: 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds. e. Class G above 1,200 ft AGL (but below 10,000 ft MSL), day: 1 SM visibility; 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds.
4) Weather minima to fly VFR into controlled airspace (B, C, D, E)
Same as the applicable basic VFR minima above for each class — generally, ceiling and visibility must allow flight while remaining clear of clouds by the specified distances and maintaining the specified flight visibility (14 CFR 91.155(c)&(d) address takeoff/landing minima specifically — see next question).
5) What clearance is needed if minima aren't met to fly into controlled airspace; weather minima for it?
Special VFR clearance from ATC, requiring at least 1 SM flight visibility and remaining clear of clouds (14 CFR 91.157); at night, an instrument-rated pilot in an IFR-equipped aircraft is additionally required.
6) What are Prohibited areas; charting; can VFR traffic be cleared in?
Prohibited areas are airspace where aircraft flight is entirely prohibited for security/other reasons (e.g., over the White House); charted with a "P" designation and defined boundary on sectional charts. No aircraft, VFR or IFR, may be cleared into a prohibited area.
7) What are Restricted areas; charting; can VFR traffic be cleared in?
Restricted areas contain unusual, often invisible hazards (artillery firing, guided missiles) to nonparticipating aircraft; charted with an "R" designation. VFR traffic may be cleared through by the controlling agency (ATC coordinates with the using agency) only when the area is not active/"hot"; otherwise it must be avoided.
8) Where are Warning areas; charting; clearance needed?
Warning areas are typically located over international/offshore waters (extending beyond the 3 NM limit), charted with a "W" designation; no clearance is legally required to transit, but they may contain hazardous military activity and should be treated with the same caution as a restricted area — checking NOTAMs/active status is recommended.
9) What are MOAs; charting; where to find vertical limits/times
Military Operations Areas contain military training activities (aerobatics, high-speed maneuvers) that VFR traffic may legally fly through without clearance, but should avoid when active due to hazard. Charted with a defined boundary labeled "MOA." Vertical limits and times of operation are found in the sectional chart's margin panel or via the Chart Supplement/NOTAMs.
10) What is an alert area; charting; clearance needed?
An alert area denotes airspace with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity; charted with an "A" designation. No clearance is required, but pilots should exercise increased vigilance.
11) What are controlled firing areas; charted on sectionals?
Controlled firing areas contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled manner, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft; however, activity is suspended immediately when a spotter aircraft/radar detects an approaching aircraft, so they are NOT charted on sectionals (no need for pilot avoidance procedures).
12) Where is a transponder/ADS-B required?
14 CFR 91.215/91.225: in Class A, B, and C airspace; within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport (the "Mode C veil") from the surface up to 10,000 ft MSL; above 10,000 ft MSL over the 48 contiguous states (excluding airspace below 2,500 ft AGL); and in/above Class C, and specific other designated areas (e.g., above the ceiling of a Class D).
13) Military Training Routes — depiction/labeling on sectional
Depicted as thin grey lines with route numbers; routes with 3-digit numbers below 1,500 ft AGL are labeled "IR" (IFR Military Training Route) or "VR" (VFR Military Training Route) with numbers ≥700 (e.g., VR1234); routes with 4-digit numbers (below 1,500 AGL portion) generally indicate segments at or below 1,500 ft AGL, while routes with numbers below 700 may include segments above 1,500 ft AGL — high-speed, low-altitude military traffic can be expected along these routes.
14) What is a TRSA; charting; class of airport; comm/clearance requirement
A Terminal Radar Service Area is an area where ATC provides (voluntary, not mandatory for VFR) radar traffic advisory/sequencing services; charted with a solid grey line and altitude figures on the sectional. TRSA airports are typically Class D (the TRSA is an additional radar service layered over the Class D, not a distinct airspace class). Two-way radio communication is not mandatorily required to transit the TRSA itself (participation is encouraged but voluntary for VFR, beyond the underlying Class D requirement to communicate with the tower).
15) What is a TFR; two ways to identify/localize them
A Temporary Flight Restriction is a short-term restriction on flight in a specific area (e.g., wildfires, VIP movement, major sporting events, disasters) issued via NOTAM. Identify via (1) checking NOTAMs during a weather/flight briefing (1-800-WX-BRIEF or online), and (2) the FAA's TFR webpage (tfr.faa.gov) or graphical depiction in an EFB app.
16) Military training routes (repeat) — depiction on sectional
See Q13 above — thin grey lines labeled IR/VR with route numbers, indicating military low-level, high-speed training routes.
Quiz 14 — Navigation
Reference: PHAK Chapter 16
1) What is Pilotage? Example
Navigation by visually referencing landmarks on the ground and comparing them to a chart, without instruments/calculations — e.g., following a river or highway visible below and matching it to the sectional chart.
2) What is Dead Reckoning? Example
Navigation by calculating heading, groundspeed, time, and distance based on known airspeed, wind, and course, without relying on visual landmarks — e.g., computing a heading and ETA to a destination using a flight plan/E6B before departure and following the computed heading/time.
3) Compare scale/use: VFR Terminal, VFR Sectional, WAC charts
VFR Terminal Area Chart: largest scale (most detail, 1:250,000 typically), used around busy Class B airspace for detailed navigation near major airports. VFR Sectional: 1:500,000 scale, the primary chart for general VFR cross-country navigation. World Aeronautical Chart (WAC): 1:1,000,000 scale, less detail, used for higher-altitude, longer cross-country flights (largely phased out/less commonly used today in the U.S.).
4) Difference between Longitude and Latitude
Latitude lines run east-west and measure position north/south of the equator (0° to 90°N/S). Longitude lines run north-south (converging at the poles) and measure position east/west of the Prime Meridian (0° to 180°E/W).
5) Degrees of latitude from equator to pole
90 degrees.
6) Prime Meridian location; how longitude lines are named
The Prime Meridian (0° longitude) passes through Greenwich, England. Longitude lines are named by their degree measurement east or west of the Prime Meridian, up to 180°E and 180°W (which meet at the International Date Line).
7) Depart C77 at noon CST, 1-hour flight to KBEH — local and Zulu times?
Local landing time at KBEH would be 1:00 PM (if in the same time zone as C77/Central Time). Zulu time: CST is UTC-6, so noon CST = 1800Z departure, landing at 1900Z (assuming KBEH is also Central Time; adjust if it's in a different time zone).
8) How to determine time zone/UTC offset for an airport
Check the Chart Supplement entry for that airport, which lists its time zone and whether daylight saving time is observed.
9) How to determine True Course (TC) on a sectional/WAC
Draw a straight line between departure and destination, then use a plotter aligned with a meridian (line of longitude) near the midpoint of the course to measure the angle from true north.
10) Does TC remain constant on a long East-West course in northern latitudes (e.g., KRFD to KCPR)? How to adjust?
No — because meridians converge toward the poles, a "straight" great-circle course's true heading actually changes gradually along a long east-west route at northern latitudes. To improve accuracy, pilots break the course into shorter segments and measure/re-measure the TC near the midpoint of each segment, updating the heading periodically along the route.
11) True Heading (TH) vs. True Course (TC); ever the same?
True Course is the intended ground track over the earth; True Heading is the direction the aircraft's nose actually points (after applying a wind correction angle to counteract drift). They are the same only when there is no crosswind component (zero wind correction angle needed).
12) Where is Magnetic North actually located; distance from True North
Magnetic North is located in the Arctic region (currently in the vicinity of northern Canada/moving toward Siberia), roughly several hundred miles from the geographic (True) North Pole — its exact position shifts gradually over time (currently several hundred miles offset).
13) How well do magnetic meridians match true meridians; how straight?
Magnetic meridians do not align uniformly with true (geographic) meridians and are often irregular, curving lines (not straight), due to local variations in the earth's magnetic field caused by geology and the offset magnetic pole.
14) Define Magnetic Variation; how it changes across the US (NE, Lake Michigan, NW examples)
Magnetic variation (declination) is the angular difference between true north and magnetic north at a given location. It varies geographically — e.g., the Northeast U.S. has significant westerly variation, the Lake Michigan/Chicago area has a relatively small variation (near the agonic line, close to 0°), and the Pacific Northwest has significant easterly variation.
15) What are isogonic lines; what is an agonic line?
Isogonic lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. The agonic line is the specific isogonic line where variation is exactly 0° (true and magnetic north align).
16) How to convert True Course to Magnetic Course
Apply variation: TC ± Variation = MC (using "East is least, West is best" — subtract easterly variation, add westerly variation).
17) TC 270°, variation 7°E — MC? Variation 5°W — MC?
With 7°E variation: MC = 270 - 7 = 263°. With 5°W variation: MC = 270 + 5 = 275°.
18) What is Magnetic Deviation; where found for a specific aircraft?
Deviation is compass error caused by the aircraft's own magnetic influences (electronics, metal structure); it is found on the compass correction card mounted near the magnetic compass in that specific aircraft.
19) How is Magnetic Deviation determined for an aircraft?
By "swinging the compass" — comparing the aircraft's compass reading to known headings on a calibrated compass rose at various headings, and recording the differences on the compass correction card.
20) Difference between TH, MH, and CH
True Heading (TH): heading relative to true north. Magnetic Heading (MH) = TH corrected for variation. Compass Heading (CH) = MH further corrected for the specific aircraft's deviation — the heading actually flown/steered on the compass.
Effect of Wind on Navigation and Dead Reckoning
21) Ground speed: 100 kt TAS, no wind / 20 kt headwind / 20 kt tailwind
No wind: 100 kt GS. 20-kt headwind: 80 kt GS. 20-kt tailwind: 120 kt GS.
22) Distinguish heading, track, and (desired) course
Heading: the direction the aircraft's nose is pointed. Track: the actual path the aircraft travels over the ground (may differ from heading due to wind drift). Course: the intended/desired ground track the pilot plans to fly.
23) What is drift angle; wind correction angle?
Drift angle: the angular difference between heading and actual track caused by wind (how far the aircraft is blown off its heading). Wind correction angle (WCA): the angle a pilot intentionally applies to the heading (crabbing into the wind) to counteract drift and maintain the desired ground track/course.
24) Convert 100 kts to MPH
100 kts × 1.15 ≈ 115 mph.
25) Wind triangle problem: TC 330°, TAS 120 kt, wind 270°@25kt, altitude 6,500 ft
Using an E6B or wind-correction calculation: a. WCA ≈ 8° right (wind from the left/west pushes the aircraft right of course, requiring a correction into the wind). b. True Heading ≈ 330 + 8 = 338°. c. Magnetic Heading (5°E variation) = 338 - 5 = 333°. d. Compass Heading (steer 328 for 330, i.e., -2° deviation at that heading) ≈ 333 - 2 = 331°. e. Ground speed ≈ 96-98 kt (reduced somewhat by the partial headwind component). f. Time for 450 NM ≈ 450 ÷ ~97 kt ≈ 4.6 hours (≈4 hr 38 min). g. Fuel burn ≈ 4.6 hr × 10 gal/hr ≈ 46 gallons. (Work these through precisely with an E6B/flight computer for exact values — approximate method shown here.)
26) Wind triangle problem: TC 330°, TAS 120 kt, wind 200°@30kt, altitude 8,500 ft
a. WCA ≈ 11-12° right. b. True Heading ≈ 330 + 12 = 342°. c. Magnetic Heading (5°W variation) = 342 + 5 = 347°. d. Compass Heading (steer 332 for 330, i.e., +2° deviation) ≈ 347 + 2 = 349°. e. Ground speed ≈ 92-95 kt. f. Time for 450 NM ≈ 450 ÷ ~93 kt ≈ 4.8 hours (≈4 hr 50 min). g. Fuel burn ≈ 4.8 hr × 10 gal/hr ≈ 48 gallons. (Work through precisely with an E6B for your exact answer.)
27) Redo Q25/Q26 with an E6B flight computer
Work these problems hands-on with a physical or electronic E6B to build proficiency — set the wind triangle grommet/true index, plot wind direction/speed, and read WCA and ground speed directly, then apply variation/deviation as in the steps above.
28) Checklist of items to review before a cross-country flight
Weather (current and forecast, along route/destination/alternate), NOTAMs/TFRs, airspace to be transversed, fuel requirements plus reserves, weight and balance, performance data (takeoff/landing/climb), aircraft airworthiness/documents, personal minimums/currency (IMSAFE/PAVE), alternate airports, and a completed flight log/navigation log with checkpoints.
29) Publication with airport-specific info (elevation, runway lengths, hours, fuel, services, time zone, comm freqs, nearest navaids)
The Chart Supplement (formerly Airport/Facility Directory).
VFR Cross-Country Planning
30) Plot a 100+ NM course and determine (a-l)
This is a hands-on exercise using a paper sectional and plotter — work through it with your instructor: (a) plot the true course(s) around controlled/restricted airspace; (b) mark visible checkpoints 20-30 NM apart; (c) identify airspace/frequencies along the route; (d) check Maximum Elevation Figures and select a legal VFR cruising altitude (odd/even thousand + 500 ft per direction of flight, FAR 91.159); (e) get winds aloft and compute WCA/TH per leg; (f) find the nearest isogonic line, compute MH and CH per leg (TC ± WCA = TH ± Var = MH ± Dev = CH); (g) compute weight/balance and pressure altitude at each airport/cruise; (h) determine runway in use at departure/arrival from weather; (i) compute takeoff distance, time/fuel/distance to climb, cruise performance, and landing distance from POH charts; (j) compute ground speed, ETE, and fuel burn per leg; (k) total flight time and fuel burn; (l) total required fuel including VFR reserves (91.151).
31) Fill out a VFR flight plan; three ways to file/activate
Complete an FAA VFR flight plan form (aircraft ID/type, route, altitude, ETE, fuel on board, souls on board, etc.). File/activate via: (1) phone with Flight Service (1-800-WX-BRIEF), (2) online/app via a flight planning service such as ForeFlight or 1800wxbrief.com, or (3) radio contact with Flight Service in flight (e.g., via a remote communications outlet or FSS frequency).
Ground-Based Navigation and GPS
32) What does VOR stand for?
VHF Omnidirectional Range.
33) Which VOR types have DME?
VOR/DME and VORTAC stations include Distance Measuring Equipment; a plain VOR (without DME/TACAN) does not.
34) What is a Radial; difference from a Bearing?
A radial is a specific magnetic course FROM the VOR station outward (one of 360 lines radiating from the station). A bearing is the direction TO or FROM a station relative to the aircraft (not necessarily one of the fixed radial lines, and can reference either direction) — radials are always defined as outbound from the station.
35) How does altitude affect VOR reception range?
VOR signals are line-of-sight; higher altitude increases reception range (able to receive the signal from farther away) because it extends the radio line-of-sight horizon.
36) Does terrain interfere with VOR reception; why?
Yes — because VOR is a line-of-sight signal, mountains, hills, or other obstructions between the aircraft and the station can block or degrade reception.
37) Four ways to check if a VOR is working/reliable
(1) NOTAMs for VOR outages, (2) the VOR "TEST" facility/VOT check, (3) monitoring the station's Morse code/voice identifier for proper identification, (4) checking a NAV flag (absence of a warning flag on the instrument) indicating a usable signal is being received.
38) Three ways to check VOR accuracy; max allowable error each
(1) VOT (VOR Test facility) — max error ±4°. (2) Certified ground checkpoint (airport surface checkpoint) — max error ±4°. (3) Airborne checkpoint (over a specified landmark on a specified radial) — max error ±6°. A dual-VOR cross-check comparing two receivers against each other is also commonly used, allowing a max of 4° difference between them.
39) Are VOR checks required for VFR flights?
No — VOR accuracy checks (per 14 CFR 91.171) are required for IFR operations, not for VFR flights.
40) Where to find VOR check facilities/checkpoints list
The Chart Supplement lists available VOR test facilities (VOTs) and airborne/ground checkpoints.
41) Define CDI, CDI needle, OBS, NAV flag
CDI (Course Deviation Indicator): the instrument display showing VOR course information. CDI needle: the vertical needle within the CDI display that deflects left/right to show position relative to the selected course. OBS (Omni Bearing Selector): the knob used to select/set the desired course on the CDI. NAV flag: a warning flag that appears when the signal is unreliable/not being received, indicating the display should not be trusted.
42) "To" flag vs "From" flag when centering the CDI; relation to radials/bearings
A "TO" flag indicates the selected course, if flown, will take you TO the station; a "FROM" flag indicates the selected course will take you away FROM the station along that radial. The radial you are on is always the "FROM" course; the reciprocal (180° opposite) is the "TO" course to fly toward the station on that radial.
43) How to identify a VOR, determine relative bearing, and fly to the station
Tune the frequency, verify the Morse code (or voice) identifier matches the chart, then rotate the OBS until the CDI needle centers with a "TO" flag — that OBS setting is your magnetic course to fly directly to the station (adjusted for wind correction as needed).
44) How to determine actual WCA in flight
Compare your heading to your actual track (observed via GPS ground track, or by noting CDI needle drift while holding a heading) — the difference between the two is your actual wind correction angle needed to stay on course.
45) Degrees per CDI dot
Typically 2° per dot (standard VOR CDI, 5 dots each side = 10° full-scale deflection).
46) Distance per degree off course at 60, 30, 15 NM from VOR
Approximately 1 NM per degree at 60 NM; 0.5 NM per degree at 30 NM; 0.25 NM (about 1,500 ft) per degree at 15 NM — using the "1 in 60" rule (1° ≈ 1 NM per 60 NM of distance).
47) CDI response flying away with "TO" flag, or toward with "FROM" flag
In these "reverse sensing" situations (flying the wrong direction relative to the OBS setting), the CDI needle will respond opposite/backward to actual course corrections — turning toward the needle will actually take you farther off course, requiring the pilot to turn away from the needle to correct.
48) What is the "Zone of Confusion" and when does it occur?
An area of unreliable/erratic CDI and flag indications occurring directly above (or very near) the VOR station, caused by the cone-shaped gap in signal coverage directly overhead; it occurs as the aircraft passes nearly over the station.
49) Passing over the VOR outbound — what happens to the "TO" flag; adjust OBS 180° or leave alone?
The "TO" flag changes to "FROM" as you pass over the station and continue outbound on the same radial. If continuing in the same direction (now flying outbound/FROM), you do NOT need to change the OBS setting — leave it as is, since the CDI will continue to respond correctly (normal sensing) for that same course/radial once past the zone of confusion.
50) Intercepting a radial on a VOR
Tune/identify the station, set the OBS to the desired radial, determine your position relative to the needle, then fly a reasonable intercept heading (angled toward the needle) until the CDI centers, then turn to track the selected course.
51) CDI deviated 4° right, inbound — how many degrees to turn; avoiding overshoot/S-turns
Turn approximately double the deviation initially to re-intercept efficiently (e.g., about a 5-10° correction, or roughly double the needle deflection amount as a starting rule of thumb) toward the needle; once re-established, reduce the correction to a smaller "hold" heading (roughly half the original intercept angle) to track the course without overshooting back and forth (avoiding repeated S-turns) by making progressively smaller corrections as the needle centers.
52) Three components combined to make an HSI
A Horizontal Situation Indicator combines a heading indicator (compass card), a CDI (course deviation display), and a glideslope indicator into one integrated instrument.
53) What does RNAV stand for; what devices are capable of RNAV?
Area Navigation. GPS navigators, FMS (flight management systems), and some older DME/VOR-based computer systems are capable of RNAV, allowing direct point-to-point navigation not limited to flying to/from ground stations.
54) What is an ADF?
Automatic Direction Finder — a receiver that points a needle toward the direction of a tuned NDB (Non-Directional Beacon) or, in some cases, AM broadcast stations.
55) Advantage of NDB over VOR in reception
NDB signals (low/medium frequency) can follow the curvature of the earth (ground wave propagation) and are less limited by line-of-sight than VOR, allowing reception at lower altitudes/greater distances around terrain in some cases, though they're more susceptible to atmospheric/electrical interference.
56) Difference between tracking and homing to an NDB
Homing means simply following the needle directly (nose always pointed at the needle), which results in a curved path if there's a crosswind. Tracking means applying a wind correction angle to maintain a straight course to the station, keeping the needle offset from the nose by the correction angle rather than centered.
57) Minimum satellites for a GPS fix
4 satellites (3 for 2D position, a 4th for altitude/3D position and clock correction).
58) What is RAIM; satellites needed to operate/isolate a bad satellite
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring — a GPS receiver function that cross-checks redundant satellite signals to detect and warn of a faulty/unreliable satellite signal. Requires a minimum of 5 satellites to detect a fault, and 6 satellites to both detect and exclude (isolate) a faulty satellite from the position solution.
59) Do VFR/portable GPS units have RAIM alerting?
Not typically — most handheld/portable and basic VFR GPS units lack certified RAIM alerting, unlike IFR-certified GPS navigators, which is a key reason portable GPS is not approved as a sole means of IFR navigation.
60) How important is a current GPS database to avoid airspace violations?
Very important — outdated databases may not reflect current airspace boundaries, TFRs, frequencies, or procedures, increasing the risk of inadvertent airspace violations; databases should be kept current per the manufacturer's update cycle.
Lost Procedures
61) First thing to do if lost, to increase visual range for landmarks?
Climb to a higher altitude (if fuel/airspace permits) to increase visual range and radio/radar/GPS reception, while maintaining aircraft control.
62) How might a VOR or GPS help find your position?
Tune a nearby VOR and center the CDI to determine your radial from that station (a line of position), and cross with a second VOR radial to fix your position; a GPS will directly display your current lat/long or nearest airport/fix.
63) How to find frequencies for an ATC facility for radar contact/vectors home
Check the sectional chart margins/inset for nearby Approach/Center frequencies, use a GPS's nearest-frequencies feature, or simply try 121.5 MHz (emergency/guard frequency) if unable to find a specific local frequency.
64) If things become hazardous and you can't raise anyone — frequency and transponder code?
Use 121.5 MHz (emergency/guard frequency), and squawk 7700 (emergency transponder code).
65) Reasons to divert to an alternate; how to do it
Deteriorating weather, fuel concerns, mechanical issues, illness/passenger emergency, or airspace/TFR conflicts. To divert: select the nearest suitable airport, determine an approximate heading/distance (using chart, GPS, or E6B), and notify ATC/Flight Service if in contact; maintain aircraft control and basic navigation first, then refine the plan.
Quiz 15 — Regulations and Airman Information Manual
Reference: 14 CFR Parts 1, 21, 39, 43, 61, 91, 830; AIM
1) Category and Class for airmen certificates (FAR 1.1) — example for your rating
Category: a broad classification of aircraft (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, glider). Class: a classification within a category based on similar operating characteristics (e.g., single-engine land, multi-engine land, single-engine sea). Example: for a Private Pilot – Airplane certificate, category = Airplane, class = Single-Engine Land.
2) Category and Class for aircraft certification (FAR 1.1) — examples
For aircraft certification, Category refers to a grouping based on intended use/limitations (e.g., Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, Transport). Class refers to broad type groupings (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air).
3) What is an Airworthiness Directive?
A legally enforceable FAA rule addressing an unsafe condition in a specific aircraft, engine, propeller, or appliance, requiring corrective action within a specified compliance time (14 CFR 39.3).
4) Maintenance an owner/operator may perform without A&P certification
Preventive maintenance items listed in 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A (e.g., oil/filter change, tire servicing, replacing safety wire, servicing landing gear struts, replacing bulbs) — not usable for aircraft under Part 121/125/135 operations.
5) Three documents a private pilot must carry (excluding BasicMed)
Pilot certificate, government-issued photo ID, and a current medical certificate (FAR 61.3).
6) Marijuana/DUI conviction consequence on certificate
A drug or alcohol-related motor vehicle conviction/administrative action can trigger reporting requirements and potential FAA enforcement action against your pilot certificate, including possible suspension/revocation, per 14 CFR 61.15.
7) How soon to report a DUI conviction/license action to the FAA?
Within 60 days of the motor vehicle action (14 CFR 61.15(e)).
8) Consequence of failing to report within the required time
Grounds for denial of an application for any certificate/rating/authorization for up to 1 year, and/or suspension or revocation of any certificate/rating/authorization held (14 CFR 61.15).
9) Which pilots require 1st class medical? 2nd class?
1st class: required for ATP privileges (airline captains). 2nd class: required to exercise commercial pilot privileges (compensation for flying, other than as an ATP).
10) Medical for student pilot solo / private pilot privileges
A current 3rd class medical certificate (or valid BasicMed if eligible/applicable) — a student pilot must hold at least a 3rd class medical (or, for glider/balloon, may not need one) to solo.
11) Duration of 1st/2nd/3rd class medicals, under 40 and 40+
1st class: 12 months (under 40) or 6 months (40+) for ATP privileges, reverting to lower-class duration for lesser privileges. 2nd class: 12 months for commercial privileges regardless of age, reverting to 3rd class duration afterward. 3rd class: 60 months (5 years) under 40; 24 months (2 years) at 40+.
Basic Med
12) Requirements to use BasicMed instead of a medical certificate
Held a valid FAA medical at some point after July 14, 2006; complete the BasicMed physician's exam/checklist every 48 months; complete the online BasicMed course every 24 months; comply with operating limitations; and not have had a most-recent medical application denied/revoked/suspended without subsequent special issuance (14 CFR 61.23(c)(3)).
13) Limitations on using BasicMed
Aircraft ≤6,000 lbs MGTOW, ≤6 occupants, no more than 5 passengers, not operated for compensation/hire, below 18,000 ft MSL, no faster than 250 KIAS, within the U.S. (14 CFR 61.113(i); Part 68).
Additional Training
14) Define complex, high-performance, tailwheel aircraft; additional training/authorization
Complex: has retractable landing gear, flaps, AND a controllable-pitch propeller. High-performance: has an engine of more than 200 horsepower. Tailwheel: has a tailwheel rather than a nosewheel (conventional gear). All three require specific additional ground and flight training with an authorized instructor, who then provides a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency to act as PIC in that type (14 CFR 61.31(e)-(i)) — no separate FAA-issued rating/checkride is required, just the CFI endorsement.
15) How often must a pilot obtain a flight review?
Every 24 calendar months (14 CFR 61.56(c)).
16) How can a new certificate/rating practical test count toward a flight review?
Satisfactory completion of a pilot proficiency check (practical test) for a certificate, rating, or operating privilege satisfies the flight review requirement, resetting the 24-month clock (14 CFR 61.56(d)(1)).
17) How can WINGS count toward a flight review?
Satisfactory completion of a phase of the FAA Pilot Proficiency (WINGS) Program within the preceding 24 months satisfies the flight review requirement (14 CFR 61.56(e)).
18) Passed PPL checkride 5 months ago in a 172; tailwheel endorsement in a J3, but no flying in 4 months — what's needed to carry passengers in the 172? At night?
Since the checkride was within the preceding 90 days... actually 5 months ago exceeds 90 days, so 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days (in the same category/class) are required before carrying passengers, and they must be logged (61.57(a)). For night passenger currency, 3 full-stop takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days, done at night (1 hr after sunset to 1 hr before sunrise), are required (61.57(b)).
19) Taking someone in the J3 Cub after 4 months — does landing currency in one count for the other?
You'd similarly need 3 takeoffs/landings within the preceding 90 days in the Cub (tailwheel, same category/class — airplane single-engine land) before carrying a passenger in it. Landing currency is required to be in the same category and class of aircraft, but not necessarily the identical type — so currency gained in the 172 (ASEL) DOES generically count toward currency in the Cub (also ASEL), and vice versa, since 61.57 currency is by category/class, not by specific make/model (though many instructors/insurance policies recommend type-specific currency for safety, especially for tailwheel aircraft).
20) Forced to move due to a domestic dispute — must you notify the FAA? How soon?
Yes, within 30 days of the permanent change of address (14 CFR 61.60).
21) Can a private pilot tow a glider? Requirements/endorsement?
Yes, with a glider towing endorsement — requires at least 100 hours of PIC flight time in the aircraft category used to tow gliders, and ground/flight training plus a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor (14 CFR 61.69).
22) Student pilot solo in Class B airspace requirements
Specific ground and flight training on that particular Class B airspace from an authorized instructor, with a logbook endorsement for solo flight in that airspace/at that airport (14 CFR 61.95).
23) When may a private pilot be paid for flying; conditions?
14 CFR 61.113: generally private pilots may not act as PIC for compensation/hire, with limited exceptions — e.g., sharing operating expenses (fuel, oil, airport fees, rental) equally with passengers on a pro-rata basis (not more than the pilot's own share); acting as an aircraft salesman with appropriate experience; being a charitable event volunteer pilot under specific conditions; towing gliders/banners with appropriate ratings; or when flying is only incidental to the pilot's business/employment and not for compensation.
24) Who is the final authority for operation of an aircraft?
The Pilot in Command.
25) When may a PIC deviate from any rule; when must the deviation be reported?
In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action (14 CFR 91.3(b)); the PIC must, if requested by the FAA Administrator, send a written report of the deviation.
26) Who determines whether an aircraft is airworthy/safe for flight?
The Pilot in Command (14 CFR 91.7) — the PIC is responsible for determining the aircraft is in condition for safe flight, and must discontinue the flight if unairworthy conditions occur.
27) Can you legally drop/throw anything from an aircraft?
Generally no objects may be dropped that create a hazard to persons/property on the surface (14 CFR 91.15), but items may be dropped if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury/damage (e.g., banner-tow drop of ballast in a controlled manner, agricultural operations, or approved objects like leaflets for advertising under proper conditions).
28) Minimum wait time after alcohol before acting as PIC/crewmember
8 hours ("8 hours, bottle to throttle") — 14 CFR 91.17.
29) Legal BAC limit for PIC/crewmember
0.04% blood alcohol concentration (14 CFR 91.17).
30) Limitations on carrying passengers who might be under the influence
No person may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in the aircraft, unless it's an emergency or the person is a medical patient under proper care (14 CFR 91.17).
31) Preflight information a PIC must be familiar with
14 CFR 91.103: weather reports/forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives if the flight cannot be completed as planned, known ATC traffic delays, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and for IFR/flights not in the vicinity of an airport, takeoff/landing distance data.
32) PIC responsibilities regarding seatbelts/shoulder harnesses
14 CFR 91.107: the PIC must ensure each person on board is briefed on how to fasten/unfasten their safety belt (and shoulder harness if installed), and that each occupant uses their safety belt during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing (with shoulder harness required for pilots during takeoff/landing in aircraft so equipped).
33) Seating requirements for infants under age 2
14 CFR 91.107(a)(3): an infant may be held by an adult occupant rather than being in a separate seat, OR may be restrained in an approved child safety/restraint device appropriate for the child's weight — the regulation permits either option.
34) Requirements to operate in formation flight
14 CFR 91.111: no aircraft may be operated in formation except by prior arrangement between the pilots in command of each aircraft; formation flight carrying passengers for hire has additional restrictions.
35) Right of way for converging aircraft of the same category
14 CFR 91.113(d): the aircraft to the other's right has the right of way.
36) Right of way vs. balloon/glider/ultralight/aircraft towing a glider
14 CFR 91.113(d): powered aircraft must give way to (yield right of way to) balloons, gliders, and aircraft towing/refueling other aircraft; aircraft must give way to airships too. (Note: ultralights are generally treated similarly to gliders in giving way expectations, though ultralights are not certificated aircraft under Part 103 and operate under different, generally "see and avoid, give way" community practices.)
37) Recommended evasive maneuver for a near head-on approach
14 CFR 91.113(e): each pilot should alter course to the right.
38) Right of way of an aircraft on final/landing
14 CFR 91.113(g): an aircraft on final approach to land, or landing, has the right of way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface (except it must not take advantage of this to cut in front of another aircraft on final or overtake it).
39) Right of way for two aircraft approaching an airport at different altitudes
14 CFR 91.113(g): the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way, but it must not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft on final approach or overtake it.
40) Speed limitations
14 CFR 91.117: a. Below 10,000 ft MSL: 250 KIAS max. b. At or below 2,500 ft AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or D: 200 KIAS max. c. Under the ceiling/lateral limits of Class B (or in a VFR corridor through it): 200 KIAS max. d. If minimum safe airspeed exceeds these limits, the aircraft may be flown at that minimum safe speed.
41) Minimum safe altitudes (except takeoff/landing)
14 CFR 91.119: a. Over congested areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-ft horizontal radius. b. Over other than congested areas (or open water): 500 ft above the surface, except over open water/sparsely populated areas no closer than 500 ft to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. c. Anywhere else: an altitude allowing, in the event of an emergency, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons/property on the surface.
42) Altimeter setting at/above FL180
29.92" Hg (standard setting), per 14 CFR 91.121.
43) When may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance in controlled airspace?
14 CFR 91.123: when an emergency exists requiring immediate action, or in response to a traffic alert/collision avoidance system (TCAS) resolution advisory.
44) Required communication after an emergency/collision-avoidance deviation
14 CFR 91.123(c): notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
45) When must a report be submitted after being given ATC priority in an emergency?
14 CFR 91.123(d): if requested by ATC, submit a detailed written report within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.
46-47) Lost comms approaching a Class D airport (no alternate uncontrolled field) — how to get in; light guns required?
Try to establish communication (transmit blind if receiver may be inop). If no radio contact is possible, remain outside/above the Class D until able to determine traffic flow, then enter and land while watching for light gun signals. You are not strictly required to remain outside waiting for light guns before entering — the AIM and 91.126(d)/91.3(b) framework allows entering and landing at your discretion as PIC in this abnormal-communications situation, provided weather/visibility is adequate to remain clear of other traffic visually and land safely; a receiver-only failure or complete comm failure situation is handled per the same general procedure (watch for light guns once in the pattern). Class C and B (91.130(c),(d); 91.131(c)) generally have stricter expectations for prior clearance and don't rely on "wait for light guns" — a VFR aircraft with lost comms approaching Class B, in particular, should be very cautious about entering without established two-way communication.
48) Three things required to land at a towered airport with lost comms
14 CFR 91.126(d)/91.3(b)/91.129(d): (1) remain outside/above the Class D airspace until the flow of traffic is determined, (2) advise the tower of your position/intentions when able (attempt communication), and (3) comply with light gun signals from the tower once established/entering to land.
49) Transponder code for lost comms
7600 (AIM 6-4-2).
50) Light gun signal meanings (ground and air)
a. Steady green: in flight — cleared to land; on ground — cleared for takeoff. b. Flashing green: in flight — return for landing (expect further clearance); on ground — cleared to taxi. c. Steady red: in flight — give way to other aircraft, continue circling; on ground — stop. d. Flashing Red: in flight — airport unsafe, do not land; on ground — taxi clear of runway/landing area. e. Flashing white: (no meaning in flight); on ground — return to starting point on airport. f. Alternating red and green: in flight and on ground — exercise extreme caution.
51) Departing an uncontrolled airport within an adjacent Class D/C boundary — how/when to contact ATC?
14 CFR 91.129(c)/91.130(c): establish two-way radio communication with the controlling ATC facility before entering that Class D or C airspace, even though departing from the uncontrolled airport underlying/adjacent to it — contact should be attempted prior to takeoff if possible, or as soon as practical after takeoff while remaining clear until contact is established.
52) Day/night minimum fuel requirements for VFR
14 CFR 91.151: Day — enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, plus 30 minutes at normal cruise speed thereafter. Night — same, plus 45 minutes reserve.
53) Basic VFR minimums by airspace (repeat/summary)
a. Class C/D/E day, G night, below 10,000 ft MSL: 3 SM visibility, 500 below/1,000 above/2,000 horizontal from clouds. b. Class E/G at or above 10,000 ft MSL: 5 SM visibility, 1,000 below/1,000 above/1 SM horizontal from clouds. c. Class B: clear of clouds, 3 SM visibility. d. Class G, day, at or below 1,200 ft AGL: 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds. e. Class G, day, more than 1,200 ft AGL but below 10,000 ft MSL: 1 SM visibility, 500 below/1,000 above/2,000 horizontal from clouds.
54) Basic VFR weather minima to fly into/out of controlled airspace (B/C/D/E)
14 CFR 91.155(c)&(d): generally same as the class-specific minima above; for arrival/departure at an airport with Class B, C, D, or Class E surface area, the flight visibility must be at least 3 SM and the aircraft must remain clear of clouds by the applicable distances, with ceiling considerations effectively requiring the ability to maintain those cloud clearances while operating in the traffic pattern.
55) Special VFR conditions and clearance requirement
14 CFR 91.157(b): Special VFR may be conducted clear of clouds with at least 1 SM flight visibility, and requires an ATC clearance.
56) Deteriorating weather 15 miles out, 800 ft/3SM, told to "remain clear of Class D, state intentions" — how to get down safely?
Options include requesting Special VFR (if authorized and conditions meet the 1 SM/clear-of-clouds minimum), diverting to a nearby uncontrolled airport with better conditions, turning back to depart the deteriorating area entirely, or (if IFR rated/equipped) requesting a pop-up IFR clearance — the key ADM point is recognizing this scenario early and choosing a safe course of action (divert/turn around) rather than continuing to press toward marginal conditions; AIM 4-4-6 and 91.157 govern the Special VFR option.
57) Requirements for Special VFR at night
AIM 4-4-6: at night, the pilot must hold an instrument rating and the aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight to receive a Special VFR clearance.
58) Do Class B airports generally permit Special VFR? How to tell?
Special VFR is generally NOT authorized within Class B airspace/at many major terminal areas; specific airports where Special VFR is prohibited are listed in 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix D, Section 3, and noted in the Chart Supplement.
59) VFR cruising altitudes above 3,000 ft AGL, by magnetic course
14 CFR 91.159: magnetic course 0-179°: odd thousands + 500 ft (e.g., 5,500, 7,500). Magnetic course 180-359°: even thousands + 500 ft (e.g., 6,500, 8,500).
60) Two certifications displayed in the cockpit for passengers/crew to view
14 CFR 91.203: the Airworthiness Certificate and the Registration Certificate must be displayed/carried where they can be seen by passengers or crew.
61) Regulation for minimum VFR day/night equipment (standard category)
14 CFR 91.205 — and yes, it's more practical to know where to find/reference this list as a checklist (like any other pre-flight checklist) rather than relying purely on memorization, though a mnemonic like "A TOMATO FLAMES" is a helpful quick-recall aid.
62) Four resources to determine if inoperative equipment is required for flight
14 CFR 91.213(d)(2): the aircraft's equipment list/Kinds of Operations Equipment List, 14 CFR 91.205 and other applicable regulations, the type certificate data sheet, and any applicable ADs.
63) If inoperative equipment isn't required by 91.213(d)(2), what must be done?
14 CFR 91.213(d)(3): the item must be removed or deactivated and placarded "Inoperative," with the action recorded in the maintenance records (typically by a mechanic).
64) If inoperative equipment IS required by one of the four elements — getting the aircraft to a repair facility
14 CFR 21.197/21.199: obtain a Special Flight Permit (ferry permit) from the FAA to fly the unairworthy aircraft to a location where the necessary repair/parts are available.
65) When must ELT batteries be replaced/recharged?
14 CFR 91.207(c): after 1 cumulative hour of use, or when 50% of their useful life (or, for rechargeable batteries, 50% of their useful charge) has expired, as established by the manufacturer.
66) When must aircraft position (nav) lights be used?
14 CFR 91.209: from sunset to sunrise (during the period of civil twilight through the equivalent morning period, more specifically defined by regulation), an aircraft must display lighted position lights when operated.
67) Altitudes requiring oxygen for pilot/crew; passengers
14 CFR 91.211: crew required to use oxygen above 12,500 ft MSL up to 14,000 ft for time exceeding 30 min, and above 14,000 ft MSL at all times; passengers must be provided (not necessarily required to use) supplemental oxygen above 15,000 ft MSL.
68) Airspace/altitudes requiring an ADS-B transponder
14 CFR 91.225: Class A, B, and C airspace; within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport (Mode C veil) surface to 10,000 ft MSL; above 10,000 ft MSL over the 48 contiguous states (excluding below 2,500 ft AGL); and above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B/C up to 10,000 ft MSL.
69) What is Aerobatic flight; limitations on where it may be operated?
14 CFR 91.303: aerobatic flight is an intentional maneuver involving abrupt change in aircraft attitude, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration not necessary for normal flight. It may not be conducted: over any congested area, over an open-air assembly of persons, within Class B/C/D or the airport traffic area, within 4 NM of a federal airway, below 1,500 ft AGL, or when visibility is less than 3 SM.
70) Pitch/bank limits requiring a parachute (FAR 91.307(c))
14 CFR 91.307(c): a parachute is required for each occupant if a bank exceeds 60° or a nose-up/down pitch attitude exceeds 30° relative to the horizon (with certain exceptions, e.g., flight tests for a certificate or training with an authorized instructor).
71) Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? (repeat)
The owner/operator (14 CFR 91.403).
72) Inspection interval for a GA aircraft not used for instruction/commercial purposes
An annual inspection every 12 calendar months (14 CFR 91.409(a)).
73) Inspection interval for aircraft used for instruction/commercial purposes
Every 100 hours of operation, in addition to the annual inspection (14 CFR 91.409(b)).
74) How often must the transponder be tested?
Every 24 calendar months (14 CFR 91.413).
75) Conditions requiring immediate NTSB notification (FAR 830.5)
Includes: flight control system malfunction/failure, in-flight fire, aircraft collision in flight, crew incapacitation, in-flight structural/engine failure with specific damage, release of a propeller/rotor blade, complete loss of engine power on multi-engine aircraft, spillage of hazardous cargo, aircraft overdue and believed missing/involved in an accident, and any accident involving death or serious injury or substantial aircraft damage.
76) How soon must an operator report be filed with the NTSB after an accident?
Within 10 days of the accident (14 CFR 830.15).
AIM Questions
1) Is a VOR check required for VFR flights? (AIM 1-1-4)
No — VOR accuracy checks are required for IFR operations only, not VFR.
2) Where do you find a Mode C veil?
Within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport, depicted on sectional charts as a thin solid blue circle line (AIM 3-2-3).
3) Generally, upper limits of Class B airspace
Typically 10,000 ft MSL.
4) Equipment/comms to enter/land at Class B
Two-way radio communication established (specific ATC clearance received, not just contact), Mode C transponder, ADS-B Out, and (for student pilots) specific endorsement; private pilot certificate or higher generally required to land at the primary Class B airport (student pilots may operate in the airspace with training/endorsement but have restrictions on landing at certain primary Class B airports).
5) Equipment/comms to enter Class C
Two-way radio communication established with ATC prior to entry, and Mode C transponder/ADS-B Out.
6) Equipment/comms to enter Class D
Two-way radio communication established with the tower prior to entry; no transponder required unless within a Mode C veil or above 10,000 ft.
7) Where are Warning Areas located; clearance needed; hazards
Generally over international/offshore waters. No clearance is legally required, but hazards similar to restricted areas (military activity) may be present — exercise caution and check for activity status (AIM 3-4-4).
8) What are restricted areas; can VFR fly through?
Areas containing unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery, guided missiles); VFR aircraft may not enter when active/"hot" without authorization from the controlling agency (AIM 3-4-3).
9) Activities in MOAs; clearance needed?
Military training activities such as air combat maneuvers, aerobatics, and low-altitude tactics. No clearance is required to transit an MOA, but pilots should exercise extreme caution and ideally contact the controlling agency for activity status (AIM 3-4-5).
10) What are alert areas?
Areas with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity, depicted for pilot awareness; no clearance required (AIM 3-4-6).
11) What are Military Training Routes; depiction
Routes used by military aircraft for low-altitude, high-speed training; depicted as thin grey lines labeled IR (IFR) or VR (VFR) with route numbers on sectional charts (AIM 3-5-2).
12) Near a Parachute Jump area — what to do/monitor?
Monitor the appropriate frequency (often published on the chart/Chart Supplement) for jump activity announcements, watch visually for descending parachutists, and avoid the area during active jump operations (AIM 3-5-4).
13) What is a VFR Flyway/Corridor; where found?
A VFR Flyway is a general flight path over/around Class B airspace to help pilots avoid the Class B while proceeding through a congested area, depicted on VFR Terminal Area Charts; a VFR Corridor is a defined path THROUGH Class B airspace (without requiring clearance) with specific altitude/routing (AIM 3-5-5).
14) What is CTAF; recommended communication procedures at a non-towered airport
See Quiz 12 Q2. Recommended: self-announce intentions/position at key points (before taxi, before takeoff, in the pattern, on final, clear of runway); monitor CTAF continuously; use standard phraseology including airport name (AIM 4-1-9).
15) Where is Mode C/ADS-B required? (AIM 4-1-20(f))
Same as 14 CFR 91.215/91.225 — Class A, B, C airspace; within the Mode C veil (30 NM of Class B primary airport) surface to 10,000 ft; above 10,000 ft MSL over the contiguous 48 states (excluding below 2,500 ft AGL).
16) Recommended TPA and pattern entry procedures at non-towered airports
Enter on a 45° to downwind at pattern altitude (typically 1,000 ft AGL for light singles); see Quiz 12, Q6-7 (AIM 4-3-3).
17) What is a segmented circle, landing direction indicator, and traffic pattern indicators?
A segmented circle is a ground marking system at non-towered airports showing traffic pattern info; the landing direction indicator (wind tee/tetrahedron) at its center shows landing direction; traffic pattern indicators (arms extending from the segmented circle) show the direction of turns for each runway's pattern (AIM 4-3-4).
18) Are pilots always required to participate in LAHSO? If not, when?
No — LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations) is voluntary; a pilot may decline a LAHSO clearance at any time (simply state "Unable LAHSO") and must be given an alternative (AIM 4-3-11).
19) When must nav lights/anti-collision lights be used?
Nav (position) lights: sunset to sunrise. Anti-collision lights (strobes/beacon): should be used continuously during all types of operations, day and night, when practical (may be turned off if they create a hazard, e.g., in clouds causing disorientation from flicker) (AIM 4-3-23).
20) When should visual clearing procedures be used?
Before any maneuver (turns, climbs, descents, practice maneuvers) and continuously while in the traffic pattern/near an airport, using clearing turns and a systematic visual scan (AIM 4-4-15).
21) Emergency response time: 121.5 vs 406 MHz ELT; why?
A 406 MHz ELT provides near-immediate satellite detection/notification with GPS-encoded position (often within minutes), while a 121.5 MHz ELT relies on being overheard by aircraft or ground stations and lacks satellite-based automatic detection/position encoding (satellite monitoring of 121.5 for distress alerting was discontinued), resulting in significantly slower response — often hours or requiring a search (AIM 6-2-4).
22) When should a 121.5 ELT be tested?
Within the first 5 minutes after the hour, per AIM 6-2-4(b), to avoid triggering false distress alerts outside that window.
23) How should a distress call be made?
"MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY," followed by aircraft identification, nature of the emergency, position/heading, altitude, souls on board, and any other pertinent information, on the frequency in use or 121.5 MHz (AIM 6-3-1).
24) Vortex avoidance procedures (AIM 7-4-6)
Land beyond a preceding aircraft's touchdown point, take off before a preceding aircraft's rotation point, stay above and upwind of another aircraft's flight path, and avoid flying directly behind/below a heavier aircraft's climb or approach path.
25) Lowest altitude over charted wildlife refuge areas (AIM 7-5-6)
Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft AGL over noise-sensitive areas such as national wildlife refuges, parks, and forest service/wilderness areas (voluntary, not regulatory, per AIM 7-5-6, unless otherwise designated).
26) Altitude where night vision affected/oxygen use might be considered (AIM 8-1-2)
Above 5,000 ft MSL at night.
27) When are pilots encouraged (but not required) to use supplemental oxygen? (AIM 8-1-2(6))
Above 10,000 ft MSL during the day (and above 5,000 ft MSL at night), even though 14 CFR 91.211 doesn't legally require it below 12,500 ft MSL.
28) Techniques to overcome ear block during descent (AIM 8-1-2(b))
Swallowing, yawning, chewing gum, or performing a gentle Valsalva maneuver; if pain occurs, ascend slightly to relieve pressure, then attempt a slower/more gradual descent while repeating the clearing technique.
29) How an upper respiratory infection can incapacitate a pilot/crew; prevention
Congestion can block the eustachian tubes/sinuses, causing severe pain and potential incapacitation (especially during descent), along with degraded cognitive performance and possible spatial disorientation from inner ear effects. Prevention: avoid flying with an active cold/sinus infection, and use appropriate over-the-counter decongestants only with medical/AME guidance if flying is unavoidable, understanding some may still cause impairment (AIM 8-1-2(4)).
30) Recommended waiting times after scuba diving (AIM 8-1-2(d))
At least 12 hours after a dive not requiring decompression stops; at least 24 hours after a dive requiring decompression stops or for flights above 8,000 ft cabin altitude even without decompression stops.
31) Response to passenger/crewmember hyperventilation symptoms (AIM 8-1-3)
Reassure and calm the person, and have them consciously slow their breathing rate (talking helps); if oxygen is available and hypoxia can't be ruled out, consider administering it as a precaution while monitoring closely.
32) Response to possible CO poisoning (AIM 8-1-4)
Turn off the cabin heater immediately, increase ventilation with fresh outside air, use supplemental oxygen if available, and land as soon as practical for medical evaluation.
33) Illusions leading to spatial disorientation (AIM 8-1-5)
a. The Leans: occurs in IMC when a slow roll goes undetected by the inner ear (not corroborated by the attitude indicator), and abrupt leveling causes a false sensation of banking. b. Graveyard Spiral: the most common cause of loss of control after continued flight in IMC, from an unnoticed gradual turn leading to a tightening descending spiral. c. Somatogravic Illusion: common when flying into a low overcast right after takeoff/acceleration, causing a false sensation of pitching up and a resulting inappropriate nose-down correction. d. False Horizon: commonly caused by layered clouds, night flying, or hazy conditions near water, where a sloping cloud/light line is mistaken for the true horizon. e. Autokinesis: occurs from fixating on a stationary light at night, causing an illusion of movement.
34) Illusions leading to landing errors (AIM 8-1-5)
a. Narrower-than-usual runway: illusion of being higher than actual, leading to a lower approach. b. Wider-than-usual runway: illusion of being lower than actual, leading to a higher approach/possible hard landing. c. Upsloping runway: illusion of being higher than actual, leading to a lower, more dangerous approach. d. Approach over water: illusion of being higher than actual (featureless surface), leading to a dangerously low approach. e. Night approach over featureless terrain: illusion of being higher than actual, leading to an unsafe low approach. f. Rain, haze, severe glare on windshield: can create an illusion of being farther away/higher than actual, or distort depth perception, leading to a low or unstable approach. g. Night approach in an urban area/along a lit straight road: can be mistaken for runway lights/be confusing, causing misalignment or misjudged glide path.
35) What is Dark Adaptation; time to fully develop
The physiological process by which the eyes become more sensitive to low light conditions; full dark adaptation takes approximately 30 minutes (AIM 8-1-6). a. Altitude above 5,000 ft, mild hypoxia, smoking, and even brief bright light exposure can all degrade or reset dark adaptation, reducing night vision effectiveness. b. Mitigation: use supplemental oxygen at appropriate altitudes, avoid smoking before/during night flight, avoid looking at bright lights (use red cockpit lighting), and allow adequate time in darkness before flight to adapt.
36) Central (foveal) vs. peripheral visual acuity; recommended scan technique (AIM 8-1-6)
Central/foveal vision provides sharp, detailed focus but only over a narrow field of view; peripheral vision is much less sharp but better at detecting motion, especially in low light. The recommended scan technique uses a series of short, overlapping eye movements to systematically scan segments of the sky (e.g., 10° segments, pausing briefly in each) rather than a continuous sweeping motion, which is less effective at detecting traffic.
37) Recommended proportion of time looking outside for traffic
AIM 8-1-6 recommends devoting the majority of scan time outside the cockpit — often cited as roughly a ratio of spending significantly more time looking outside than inside (e.g., glance inside briefly, then scan outside), especially in the traffic pattern/high-traffic areas.
38) Determining relative altitude of an approaching aircraft (AIM 8-1-8)
If the other aircraft's relative position in your windscreen doesn't seem to move but is growing larger (constant bearing, decreasing range), it's likely on a collision course at roughly the same altitude; observe whether it appears above, level with, or below your own horizon reference to judge relative altitude.
39) Visual clues suggesting a collision course
Another aircraft that appears to remain in a fixed, unmoving position in your windscreen while growing larger (no relative bearing drift) indicates a likely collision course.
40) Evasive action for a head-on approaching aircraft
Both pilots should alter course to the right (14 CFR 91.113(e)).
41) Collision risk mitigation strategies (AIM 8-1-8)
Identify and avoid high-traffic-density areas near airports/VOR intersections when possible, maximize aircraft visibility (use lights, anti-collision strobes), maintain a disciplined visual scan, use available technology (ADS-B traffic display, flight following/radar advisories from ATC), and communicate position on CTAF or with ATC.